Banking & Financial Awareness June 2026 Quiz, FREE PDF

1. What is the updated Policy Repo Rate announced during the RBI Monetary Policy Committee meeting on June 5, 2026?

2. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India as mentioned in the June 2026 report?

3. What is the newly revised real GDP growth projection made by the RBI for the current fiscal year (FY27)?

4. What is the updated Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation projection set by the RBI for FY27?

5. Under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) operationalized in June 2026, what is the fixed Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?

6. What are the current values for the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate respectively?

7. Which monetary policy stance did the MPC decide to continue with during the June 2026 review?

8. What was the headline CPI inflation reported for April 2026 as per the RBI Governor’s statement?

9. What was the stable core inflation percentage cited by the RBI Governor in the June policy highlights?

10. What is the current Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) mandated by the RBI as per the June 2026 monetary update?

11. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) value maintained by the RBI in June 2026?

12. The RBI exempted which bank positions from the calculation of their Net Overnight Open Position in Rupee (NOP-INR) limits?

13. Measures announced by the RBI and the government to attract foreign capital are expected to bring in how much inflows?

14. In March, what specific cap did the RBI prescribe for banks’ net open position in rupee (NOP-INR) in the onshore deliverable market?

15. The $100 million cap on NOP-INR positions was aimed at curbing arbitrage positions between which two markets?

16. To attract foreign capital into Government Securities under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), the RBI included all new issuances of which tenors into ‘specified securities’?

17. Under the General Route of FPI investment, which limits were completely removed by the RBI in June 2026?

18. The RBI has increased equity market investment limits without SEBI registration for which categories of investors?

19. At par with NRIs and OCIs, the equity investment facility without SEBI registration was extended to which of the following?

20. Up to when will the RBI provide the concessional forex swap facility to incentivize External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) by PSUs?

21. Authorised Dealer (AD) banks raising fresh 3 to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits can avail of the full hedging cost bearing facility up to which date?

22. What change has the RBI proposed regarding the time allowed for the realization of export proceeds?

23. What is the fundamental principle behind the RBI’s exchange rate policy as reiterated by the Governor?

24. When will the consolidated regulatory instructions for Risk, Compliance, and Internal Audit functions come into effect?

25. What is the minimum fixed tenure mandated by the RBI for the appointment of a Chief Risk Officer (CRO), Chief Compliance Officer (CCO), and Head of Internal Audit (HIA)?

26. What administrative prerequisite must be satisfied by a commercial bank to prematurely transfer or remove its CRO, CCO, or HIA?

27. Senior officials selected to serve as CRO, CCO, or HIA must not be more than how many levels below the MD & CEO?

28. To whom do the CRO, CCO, and HIA report functionally under the consolidated June 2026 framework?

29. How frequently must the CRO, CCO, and HIA meet the board or its committee without the presence of senior management?

30. What voting power does a Chief Risk Officer (CRO) possess when attending meetings of credit sanction and approval committees?

31. If a bank chooses to assume a risk contrary to the CRO’s advice, whose approval is required?

32. Within how many days must any appointment, reappointment, removal, or exit of a Chief Risk Officer (CRO) be reported to the RBI?

33. What must a bank provide to the regulator before appointing or removing Chief Compliance Officers (CCOs) and Heads of Internal Audit (HIAs)?

34. Under the Responsible Business Conduct (Second Amendment) Directions, 2026, what practice regarding third-party products is explicitly banned?

35. If a third-party product is essential as a risk-mitigation tool (e.g., insurance with home loan), what option must banks give customers?

36. How is “mis-selling” explicitly defined under the newly released RBI Master Directions?

37. What are the compensation requirements for a bank when a case of mis-selling is officially established?

38. Within how many days of selling a financial product must banks establish mechanisms to seek customer feedback?

39. What is the term used by the RBI to describe manipulative digital platform interfaces designed to trick or mislead users into unwanted actions?

40. Which of the following is cited by the RBI as an illustrative example of a prohibited “dark pattern”?

41. What operational guideline has been issued for sub-agents or representatives of third-party service providers present on bank premises?

42. The RBI permitted Authorised Dealer banks to open repatriable rupee accounts for which category of international investors to purchase listed shares?

43. Under what schedule of the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, are these repatriable equity investments governed?

44. What new reporting category has been introduced for AD banks to track equity operations by overseas individuals?

45. For loans guaranteed under the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) 5.0, what risk weight can lenders assign to the guaranteed portion?

46. To qualify for the zero per cent risk weight under ECLGS 5.0, within how many days must the guarantee invocation settlement be expected?

47. Which regional office of the Reserve Bank of India launched the mass awareness campaign titled ‘RBI Reelathon 2026’?

48. Who is the target audience of the state-wide cyber financial fraud mass awareness campaign ‘RBI Reelathon 2026’?

49. Across approximately how many colleges will the first phase of the RBI Reelathon 2026 awareness initiative be conducted?

50. Under the RBI’s concessional swap facility for overseas foreign currency borrowings (OFCBs), what is the minimum maturity required for the borrowings?

51. The restriction limiting participation exclusively to public-sector entities applies to which component of the RBI’s concessional swap scheme?

52. At what fixed compounding rate per annum will the RBI’s concessional swap for OFCBs be undertaken?

53. Market hedging costs are estimated at 3.5-4 per cent. How many basis points (bps) of funding cost reduction does the RBI’s 1.5% swap arrangement imply?

54. To what date has the Reserve Bank of India deferred the implementation of the revised Kisan Credit Card (KCC) directions?

55. How will KCC loans sanctioned before January 1, 2027, be treated under the new directive?

56. Under the RBI’s draft Guidance on Regulatory Principles for Model Risk Management, what does the acronym MRMF stand for?

57. The draft Guidance on Model Risk Management Framework (MRMF) explicitly covers which emerging technologies?

58. What was the deadline for stakeholders to submit feedback on the RBI’s draft guidelines for Model Risk Management?

59. According to the draft framework, which committee of the Board is assigned a greater oversight role for checking validation reports of models classified as high risk?

60. How frequently must the Risk Management Committee of the Board review model-risk classification reports?

61. What safeguard does the RBI propose if a third-party vendor does not disclose adequate information regarding their AI/ML models?

62. To counteract automation bias and over-reliance on model outputs in AI-driven finance, the RBI proposed mandatory deployment of:

63. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) with what asset size are automatically classified as Upper Layer (NBFC-UL) entities under scale-based regulation?

64. How frequently will the asset-size threshold for scale-based classification of Upper Layer NBFCs be reviewed?

65. What major regulatory relaxation was withdrawn from government-owned NBFCs in the revised scale-based guidelines?

66. What happens to existing breaches of exposure limits by government-owned NBFCs under the new framework?

67. Which principal holding company of the Tata Group comfortably exceeds the Rs. 1 lakh crore asset base threshold, cementing its Upper Layer classification?

68. From what type of registration was Tata Sons seeking regulatory relief by applying to surrender its status?

69. According to RBI data, India’s total outstanding external debt climbed to what figure by the end of March 2026?

70. What was India’s external debt-to-GDP ratio at the end of March 2026?

71. Which currency remains the absolute dominant component in India’s external debt composition, accounting for 55.5%?

72. What was the gross amount raised by Indian states through State Government Securities (SGS) during the fiscal year 2025-26?

73. During 2025-26, how many states or Union Territories availed themselves of the RBI’s Special Drawing Facility?

74. For the first half of 2025-26, the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for the Central government was fixed at what amount?

75. According to RBI Basic Statistical Returns data for FY26, term deposits of what account denomination now account for more than one-third of the total banking fixed deposits?

76. Deposits of Rs. 1 crore and above accounted for what percentage of all bank term deposits as of end-March 2026?

77. What platform allows individual constituent gilt account holders to directly trade government securities as per consolidated draft rules?

78. Within how many minutes of execution must transactions in government securities undertaken outside NDS-OM be reported to the platform?

79. On what basis are transactions on the government securities trading platform settled through CCIL?

80. Within what maximum duration must position limits for short-sale transactions in central government securities be covered?

81. Which type of central government security is strictly excluded from short-sale transactions?

82. What internal control mechanism is mandatorily prescribed to monitor short-sale and when-issued transactions?

83. Under the Scale Based Regulation (SBR) framework, what type of regulation does an upper layer NBFC face?

84. What is the designated target range or band for retail inflation under the formal framework given to the MPC?

85. What specific external conflict was mentioned by the RBI Governor on June 5, 2026, as posing a distinct risk to domestic inflation and economic growth?

86. What was the exact value that the Indian Rupee reached against the US Dollar after the RBI liberalized FPI norms for G-secs in early June 2026?

87. What was the starting interbank opening exchange rate of the Rupee vs USD on the policy announcement day before appreciating?

88. What is the historical value of the Fixed Reverse Repo Rate as per the statutory framework listed in the June policy rate card?

89. In the context of model deployment, high-risk validation reports must be placed before which specific board entity before being launched?

90. Which institution handles the definitive payment settlement for government securities traded on NDS-OM?

91. What operational framework did the RBI institute to identify various systemic tiers of Non-Banking Financial Companies?

92. What was the core inflation level recorded in March/April 2026 as mentioned by the Governor?

93. The draft guidelines on MRMF state that if an institution uses AI/ML models, vulnerabilities should be tested under edge cases and what other conditions?

94. Human oversight for AI-driven decision making is designed to mitigate risks from decision fatigue, over-reliance, and what other human bias?

95. The RBI stated that the country’s buffer against external shocks is robustly provided by which component?

96. According to the June data, deposits of Rs 5 crore+ comprise over what share of all term deposits?

97. The June 2026 guidelines mandate that any choice to override a Chief Risk Officer’s explicit risk warning must be reported directly to:

98. To ensure the operational independence of the CRO, CCO, and HIA control functions, the RBI requires them to remain completely free from:

99. Under the revised framework, who performs the final annual performance review of the CCO, CRO, and HIA?

100. In case of established product mis-selling, what must a bank refund to the aggrieved customer under the June 2026 directions?