The SSC MTS 2026 exam is one of the most competitive government exams in India, attracting lakhs of candidates each year. To succeed, you need a well-planned preparation strategy, consistent practice, and a thorough understanding of all subjects. This article provides expert tips, exam patterns, and important dates to help you stay on track and perform your best. It also includes a practice quiz PDF for better preparation.
Download and attempt SSC MTS Practice Quiz
To effectively prepare for the SSC MTS exam, practicing with mock quizzes and solving previous year questions is important. Below is a practice quiz designed to help assess a candidate's knowledge in various sections such as numerical and mathematical ability, reasoning ability and problem-solving, general awareness and english language and comprehension. After attempting the quiz, a candidate can check the answers in the answer key provided below to evaluate your performance and identify areas for improvement.
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Questions from SSC MTS Practice Quiz
Below are the sample questions provided to give candidates a clear idea of the question pattern, difficulty level, and topic coverage of the complete set. The full PDF contains many more practice questions prepared as per the latest exam trend. Candidates are advised to download the complete PDF from the above link and practice thoroughly for better exam preparation.
Question 1.
Find the odd one out: 121, 144, 169, 196, 210
(A) 121
(B) 144
(C) 196
(D) 210
Question 2.
A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a circle. A is opposite C. B is to the right of D. Who is to the left of C?
(A) D
(B) E
(C) B
(D) A
Question 3.
A train 120 m long passes a pole in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?
(A) 36 km/h
(B) 40 km/h
(C) 42 km/h
(D) 43.2 km/h
Question 4.
The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 51. What is the largest number?
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 21
Question 5.
A man buys an article for ₹500 and sells it at a profit of 20%. What is the selling price?
(A) ₹580
(B) ₹600
(C) ₹620
(D) ₹650
Question 6.
A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B in 16 days. They work together for 4 days. What fraction of work is left?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 5/12
Question 7.
The ratio of two numbers is 3:5. If their sum is 64, what is the smaller number?
(A) 24
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 32
Question 8.
The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years at 5% per annum is ₹150. What is the principal?
(A) ₹900
(B) ₹1000
(C) ₹1200
(D) ₹1100
Question 9.
If 15% of a number is 45, what is 40% of the number?
(A) 90
(B) 100
(C) 110
(D) 120
Question 10.
A box contains 10 red, 8 blue, and 12 green balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is not blue?
(A) 5/6
(B) 7/10
(C) 11/15
(D) 9/10
Question 11.
The average of 5 numbers is 20. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 18. What is the excluded number?
(A) 28
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 34
Question 12.
A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above the cost price. He allows a discount of 10%. What is his gain percentage?
(A) 8%
(B) 10%
(C) 9%
(D) 12%
Question 13.
The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. What is its area?
(A) 144 cm²
(B) 144 m²
(C) 160 cm²
(D) 169 cm²
Question 14.
Choose the correct synonym of Abundant:
(A) Scarce
(B) Plentiful
(C) Rare
(D) Meager
Question 15.
Fill in the blank: She ______ to the market before it started raining.
(A) go
(B) went
(C) goes
(D) going
Question 16.
Identify the error in the sentence: "He don't like playing football."
(A) He
(B) don't
(C) like
(D) football
Question 17.
Choose the correct antonym of Hostile:
(A) Friendly
(B) Aggressive
(C) Fierce
(D) Angry
Question 18.
Fill in the blank: If I ______ more time, I would have completed the book.
(A) have
(B) had
(C) has
(D) having
Question 19.
One word substitution: A person who travels to unknown places for adventure is called a ______.
(A) Tourist
(B) Explorer
(C) Adventurer
(D) Voyager
Question 20.
Choose the correct passive form: "The chef cooked a delicious meal."
(A) A delicious meal was cooked by the chef
(B) A delicious meal is cooked by the chef
(C) A delicious meal has cooked by the chef
(D) A delicious meal cooked by the chef
Download SSC MTS Previous Year Question Papers
Question 21.
Fill in the blank: Neither the teacher nor the students ______ ready for the assembly.
(A) was
(B) were
(C) is
(D) be
Question 22.
Choose the correct preposition: She is good ______ mathematics.
(A) at
(B) in
(C) on
(D) for
Question 23.
Correct the sentence: "He said to me, ‘I am feeling tired.'"
(A) He said me that he was feeling tired
(B) He said to me that he was feeling tired
(C) He told me that he is feeling tired
(D) He said me he is feeling tired
Question 24.
Choose the correct word: She is very ______ in helping the poor.
(A) generous
(B) kindness
(C) generousness
(D) kindly
Question 25.
Which element has the chemical symbol ‘K'?
A) Krypton
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Sodium
Question 26.
Who wrote the book "India Wins Freedom"?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Maulana Azad
D) B.R. Ambedkar
Question 27.
Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Question 28.
The Grammy Awards are related to:
A) Literature
B) Music
C) Sports
D) Film
Question 29.
Who is the current Finance Minister of India (as of 2026)?
A) Nirmala Sitharaman
B) Piyush Goyal
C) Arun Jaitley
D) Raghuram Rajan
Question 30.
The Pushkar Lake is located in which state?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Uttar Pradesh
Question 31.
Which vitamin is mainly obtained from sunlight?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Question 32.
Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Sardar Patel
Question 33.
The Suez Canal connects which two bodies of water?
A) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
C) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
D) Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
Question 34.
The largest organ in the human body is:
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Heart
D) Kidney
Question 35.
The largest desert in India is:
A) Thar Desert
B) Rann of Kutch
C) Ladakh Desert
D) Cholistan Desert
Question 36.
Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
A) Pratibha Patil
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Sonia Gandhi
D) Sarojini Naidu
Question 37.
The currency of Japan is:
A) Yen
B) Yuan
C) Won
D) Ringgit
Question 38.
The Ganga Action Plan was launched in which year?
A) 1975
B) 1986
C) 1990
D) 2000
Question 39.
Who discovered penicillin?
A) Marie Curie
B) Alexander Fleming
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Robert Koch
Question 40.
The Red Fort is located in:
A) Jaipur
B) Delhi
C) Agra
D) Lucknow
Answer Key
Below is the answer key of the above sample questions:
| Question No. | Answer |
|---|
| 1 | D |
| 2 | A |
| 3 | D |
| 4 | C |
| 5 | B |
| 6 | D |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | B |
| 9 | D |
| 10 | A |
| 11 | B |
| 12 | A |
| 13 | A |
| 14 | B |
| 15 | B |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | B |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | A |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | A |
| 23 | B |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | B |
| 26 | C |
| 27 | B |
| 28 | B |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | B |
| 31 | D |
| 32 | B |
| 33 | A |
| 34 | B |
| 35 | A |
| 36 | B |
| 37 | A |
| 38 | B |
| 39 | B |
| 40 | B |
Benefits of SSC MTS Practice Quizzes:
Below are the benefits of attempting practice quizzes for the SSC MTS exam regularly:
- Simulate exam-like conditions and improve time management
- Build speed and accuracy with daily practice
- Gain insights into strengths and weaknesses
- Receive detailed performance analytics to refine your strategy
By practicing regularly with quizzes, you can significantly improve your chances of success in the SSC MTS 2025 Exam.
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What is SSC MTS 2026 Exam Pattern?
The SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2026 includes a Computer-Based Test (CBT) covering General Intelligence & Reasoning, Numerical Aptitude, General English, and General Awareness, followed by a Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST) for Havaldar posts, and finally document verification and merit-based selection. The details of the SSC MTS exam are as follows:
| Stage | Description |
|---|
| Written Examination | A computer-based test (CBT) assesses 1. General intelligence and reasoning, 2. Numerical aptitude, 3. General English, and 4. General awareness. |
| Result of Written Exam | Declaration of results and shortlisting of candidates for the next stage. |
| Physical Test For Havaldar Post | Physical efficiency test (PET) and physical standard test (PST) for Havaldar posts. |
| Document Verification | Verification of educational and other necessary documents of shortlisted candidates. |
| Final Selection | Preparation of the final merit list based on performance in the written exam and physical test (if applicable). |
- Computer-Based Examination: Two mandatory sessions conducted on the same day.
- Session I: Lasts 45 minutes. No negative marking.
- Session 2 Eligibility: Only candidates who pass Session 1 will have their Session 2 answers checked.
- Transition: Session II begins right after Session I ends.
- Session II: Lasts 45 minutes. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
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