JAIIB 2026 PPB 50 Most Repetitive MCQs, Download PDF

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JAIIB 2026 PPB is not about covering the entire syllabus blindly. It is about identifying what is repeatedly tested and preparing with clarity. Based on the last 2 years exam analysis trend and the memory-based papers, strong repetition patterns are clearly visible. Certain topics consistently carry direct, conceptual, and practical MCQs.

Understanding the most repetitive topics, question trends, and the framing pattern of questions can significantly improve your score in the PPB paper conducted by the Indian Institute of Banking and Finance. This blog provides a detailed analysis of the topics from which questions were asked, along with the latest exam trends.

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What are the most repetitive topics in JAIIB 2026 PPB?

Some topics are consistently tested in every cycle. These areas are concept-driven and closely connected to day-to-day banking operations.

TopicWhat is Usually Asked?Repetition Level
Banker–Customer RelationshipRights, duties, types of relationshipsVery High
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881Holder, endorsement, crossing, dishonourVery High
Types of AccountsSB, CA, FD rules, nominationHigh
Payment & Collection of ChequesProtection to paying/collecting bankerHigh
KYC & AML GuidelinesDocuments, risk category, PMLA basicsHigh
Priority Sector Lending (PSL)Targets, categories, limitsModerate–High
Financial Inclusion SchemesPMJDY, DBT basicsModerate
Payment SystemsNEFT, RTGS, UPI features & limitsModerate
Digital Banking & Cyber SecurityFraud types, phishing, security practicesModerate

30 Practice Questions from the Most Repetitive Topics in JAIIB PPB

Q1. A cheque bears the words ‘Account Payee Only.’ What is the effect of this crossing?

  • A) The cheque cannot be transferred or negotiated to any other person
  • B) The cheque can still be endorsed to a third party
  • C) The cheque can be encashed at any counter
  • D) The crossing has no legal effect under NI Act

Answer: A) The cheque cannot be transferred or negotiated to any other person

Q2. What is the difference between a ‘holder’ and a ‘Holder in Due Course’?

  • A) There is no difference — both terms are used interchangeably
  • B) A holder must have paid consideration; a Holder in Due Course need not
  • C) A Holder in Due Course has better title than a holder and takes free of most defects
  • D) A holder can sue the maker; a Holder in Due Course cannot

Answer: C) A Holder in Due Course has better title than a holder and takes free of most defects

Q3. Section 85 of the NI Act provides protection to the paying banker when:

  • A) The cheque is forged
  • B) Payment is made in due course on a bearer cheque or an order cheque with regular endorsements
  • C) The cheque is materially altered but not visibly
  • D) The cheque is post-dated

Answer: B) Payment is made in due course on a bearer cheque or an order cheque with regular endorsements

Q4. Section 131 of the NI Act provides statutory protection to the collecting banker provided:

  • A) The customer is a high-value client
  • B) The bank acted in good faith and without negligence
  • C) The cheque was specially crossed to the collecting bank
  • D) The bank obtained RBI approval before collection

Answer: B) The bank acted in good faith and without negligence

Q5. A cheque dated 3 months ago is presented for payment. The paying bank should:

  • A) Pay it immediately as there is no restriction on old cheques
  • B) Refer to drawer before payment
  • C) Refuse payment as it is a stale cheque (beyond 3 months)
  • D) Accept it only if the drawer gives written confirmation

Answer: C) Refuse payment as it is a stale cheque (beyond 3 months)

Q6. Which Section of the NI Act deals with the protection of the paying banker against materially altered cheques?

  • A) Section 85
  • B) Section 89
  • C) Section 131
  • D) Section 138

Answer: B) Section 89

Q7. A cheque is drawn by Mr. A in favor of Mr. B. Mr. B endorses it to Mr. C, and Mr. C endorses it to Mr. D. The cheque is dishonored. Who can Mr. D sue?

  • A) Only Mr. A (drawer)
  • B) Only Mr. C (immediate endorser)
  • C) Mr. A, Mr. B, and Mr. C — all prior parties
  • D) Only Mr. B

Answer: C) Mr. A, Mr. B, and Mr. C — all prior parties

Q8. What is an ‘accommodation bill’?

  • A) A bill drawn for actual trade transactions
  • B) A bill drawn without any underlying trade transaction to raise funds
  • C) A bill drawn against warehouse receipts
  • D) A bill issued by the RBI for monetary operations

Answer: B) A bill drawn without any underlying trade transaction to raise funds

Q9. Under Section 138 of the NI Act, a cheque bounce case can be filed only if: (1) The cheque was returned for insufficient funds; (2) The payee made a demand within 30 days of dishonor memo; (3) The drawer failed to pay within 15 days of notice.

  • A) 1 only
  • B) 1 and 2 only
  • C) All 1, 2 and 3
  • D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: C) All 1, 2 and 3

Q10. A ‘sans recours’ endorsement means:

  • A) The endorser guarantees payment
  • B) The endorser excludes personal liability in case of dishonor
  • C) The cheque cannot be further endorsed
  • D) Payment must be made to the endorsee only

Answer: B) The endorser excludes personal liability in case of dishonor

Also download the JAIIB Previous Year Papers PDF

Q11. Which of the following instruments is NOT a negotiable instrument under the NI Act, 1881?

  • A) Promissory note
  • B) Bill of exchange
  • C) Cheque
  • D) Fixed Deposit Receipt

Answer: D) Fixed Deposit Receipt

Q12. The presentment of a bill of exchange for acceptance is required in which of the following cases?

  • A) All bills of exchange
  • B) Bills payable after sight or after a specified event
  • C) Demand bills only
  • D) Only foreign bills

Answer: B) Bills payable after sight or after a specified event

Q13. What is the minimum balance requirement for a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)?

  • A) ₹500
  • B) ₹1,000
  • C) Zero (no minimum balance required)
  • D) ₹100

Answer: C) Zero (no minimum balance required)

Q14. Which of the following statements about a Current Account is correct?

  • A) Current accounts earn interest at savings account rates
  • B) Overdraft facility is not available in current accounts
  • C) No interest is paid on current account balances as per RBI guidelines
  • D) Current accounts can only be opened by individuals

Answer: C) No interest is paid on current account balances as per RBI guidelines

Q15. A customer wants to open a Recurring Deposit (RD) account. Which statement is correct?

  • A) The customer deposits a lump sum amount once and earns interest
  • B) The customer deposits fixed amounts at regular intervals and gets a lump sum on maturity
  • C) The deposit is repayable on demand
  • D) RD accounts cannot be prematurely closed

Answer: B) The customer deposits fixed amounts at regular intervals and gets a lump sum on maturity

Q16. A nomination facility in bank accounts is governed by which section of the Banking Regulation Act?

  • A) Section 45ZA
  • B) Section 35A
  • C) Section 21A
  • D) Section 10A

Answer: A) Section 45ZA

Q17. A post-dated cheque (PDC) presented before its date should be:

  • A) Paid immediately if funds are available
  • B) Returned unpaid as it is not yet valid
  • C) Held by the bank and paid on the date mentioned
  • D) Converted into a demand draft

Answer: B) Returned unpaid as it is not yet valid

Q18. Which of the following statements about ‘payment in due course’ is correct?

  • A) Payment must be made only to account holders of the paying bank
  • B) Payment must be made in good faith, without negligence, at the proper time, and to the right person
  • C) Payment in due course applies only to RTGS and NEFT transactions
  • D) Payment in due course means the bank ensures the payee’s identity through biometrics

Answer: B) Payment must be made in good faith, without negligence, at the proper time, and to the right person

Q19. The primary objective of the Know Your Customer (KYC) guidelines is:

  • A) To increase bank deposits by verifying wealthy customers
  • B) To prevent banks from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing
  • C) To ensure customers maintain minimum balance requirements
  • D) To facilitate faster account opening for all customers

Answer: B) To prevent banks from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing

Q20. Which of the following is an Officially Valid Document (OVD) for KYC purposes?

  • A) Voter ID card, Aadhaar, Passport, Driving Licence, NREGA Job Card
  • B) PAN card only
  • C) Bank statement from another bank
  • D) Employer identity card

Answer: A) Voter ID card, Aadhaar, Passport, Driving Licence, NREGA Job Card

Q21. Under PMLA 2002, the minimum imprisonment for the offence of money laundering is:

  • A) 1 year
  • B) 3 years
  • C) 5 years
  • D) 7 years

Answer: B) 3 years

Q22. A cash transaction of ₹10 lakh and above must be reported to the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU-IND) as:

  • A) Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)
  • B) Cash Transaction Report (CTR)
  • C) Non-Profit Organisation Transaction Report (NPTR)
  • D) Currency Declaration Report (CDR)

Answer: B) Cash Transaction Report (CTR)

Q23. How frequently must High Risk customers’ KYC be updated?

  • A) Every year
  • B) Every 2 years
  • C) Every 5 years
  • D) Every 10 years

Answer: B) Every 2 years

Q24. A ‘Politically Exposed Person’ (PEP) is classified under which risk category for KYC purposes?

  • A) Low Risk
  • B) Medium Risk
  • C) High Risk
  • D) PEPs are exempt from KYC requirements

Answer: C) High Risk

Q25. Under the PMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) must be filed with FIU-IND within:

  • A) 7 days of detecting the suspicion
  • B) 15 days of detecting the suspicious transaction
  • C) 30 days
  • D) At the end of the financial year

Answer: A) 7 days of detecting the suspicion

Q26. The concept of ‘Beneficial Owner’ under KYC requires identification of the individual who:

  • A) Holds the bank account in their name
  • B) Ultimately owns or controls the customer and on whose behalf a transaction is conducted
  • C) Is authorized to operate the account on behalf of the customer
  • D) Introduced the customer to the bank

Answer: B) Ultimately owns or controls the customer and on whose behalf a transaction is conducted

Q27. A customer is found on the UN Consolidated Sanctions List. What immediate action should the bank take?

  • A) Close the account and return funds to the customer
  • B) Continue normal operations and file a routine CTR
  • C) Freeze the account and report to MHA and FIU-IND
  • D) Refer the matter to the branch manager for a decision

Answer: C) Freeze the account and report to MHA and FIU-IND

Q28. What is the threshold for ‘Beneficial Owner’ identification in a company?

  • A) 10% shareholding
  • B) 25% shareholding or more
  • C) 51% shareholding
  • D) Shareholding exceeding 75%

Answer: B) 25% shareholding or more

Q29. What does ‘Customer Due Diligence’ (CDD) involve?

  • A) Verifying customer’s income tax returns only
  • B) Identifying the customer, verifying identity, understanding the nature of business, and ongoing monitoring
  • C) Checking only the customer’s credit score before loan approval
  • D) Reviewing the customer’s social media profile

Answer: B) Identifying the customer, verifying identity, understanding the nature of business, and ongoing monitoring

Q30. The term ‘Shell Bank’ in AML refers to:

  • A) A bank operating only through ATMs with no physical branch
  • B) A bank with no physical presence in any country where it is licensed and unaffiliated with any regulated financial group
  • C) A bank that exclusively handles foreign currency transactions
  • D) A correspondent bank that processes international payments

Answer: B) A bank with no physical presence in any country where it is licensed and unaffiliated with any regulated financial group

Scenario: Mrs. Sunita, an illiterate widow aged 68, holds a savings account at Mahalaxmi Bank. She suffers a stroke and becomes bedridden, unable to visit the branch or sign documents. Her son Rahul wants to operate the account on her behalf. The bank is also asked by her daughter Priya to add her name as a joint holder.

CS-Q1. What is the correct procedure for allowing Rahul to operate Mrs. Sunita’s account given her incapacitation?

  • A) Rahul can operate the account by simply presenting his Aadhaar card at the branch
  • B) The bank should obtain a court order appointing Rahul as her legal guardian before allowing account operation
  • C) Mrs. Sunita can authorize Rahul through an Authorisation-cum-Indemnity letter with a thumb impression witnessed by two independent witnesses, or through a Power of Attorney
  • D) The bank should freeze the account until Mrs. Sunita recovers and visits the branch personally

Answer: C) Mrs. Sunita can authorize Rahul through an Authorisation-cum-Indemnity letter with a thumb impression witnessed by two independent witnesses, or through a Power of Attorney

CS-Q2. Regarding Priya’s request to be added as a joint holder — can the bank add her name to the existing account, and what mandate options are available?

  • A) Adding a joint holder to an existing account is not permitted — Priya must open a separate new account
  • B) The bank can add Priya as a joint holder with Mrs. Sunita’s consent; mandate options include ‘Either or Survivor,’ ‘Jointly,’ or ‘Former or Survivor’
  • C) Joint accounts are permitted only between spouses — Priya cannot be added as Mrs. Sunita’s daughter
  • D) Priya can be added only as a nominee, not as a joint account holder

Answer: B) The bank can add Priya as a joint holder with Mrs. Sunita’s consent; mandate options include ‘Either or Survivor,’ ‘Jointly,’ or ‘Former or Survivor’

Download JAIIB important MCQs Free PDF

Also, download the JAIIB important MCQs free PDF here:

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JAIIB IE and IFS Important Questions PDFJAIIB PPB Important Questions PDF
JAIIB AFM Important Questions PDFJAIIB RBWM Important Questions PDF

What is the question trend observed in recent PPB exams?

Some of the last exam analysis shows a mix of direct and concept-based MCQs. Earlier papers were more theoretical, but recent attempts focus on practical understanding and application-based questions.

  • 35–40% Direct concept-based questions
  • 25–30% Practical scenario-based questions
  • 15–20% Act and section-related questions
  • 10–15% Banking schemes and guidelines
  • 5–10% Digital banking and new developments

In what way are questions asked in JAIIB PPB paper?

Understanding how questions are framed is as important as knowing the topic. Most questions are simple in language but tricky in options. They test clarity, not memorisation alone.

  • Definition-based (e.g., Who is a holder in due course?)
  • Statement-based (Which of the following statements is correct?)
  • Scenario-based (A cheque is crossed generally. What does it imply?)
  • Limit-based (What is the minimum lock-in period?)
  • Matching-type concept questions
  • Negative framing (Which of the following is NOT correct?)

Which topics carry the highest scoring opportunity?

Certain topics not only repeat but are also scoring if prepared properly. These areas often contain direct or easily eliminable options.

TopicWhy It Is Scoring?
Banker–Customer RelationshipConcept clarity gives direct answers
KYC & AMLMostly rule-based and factual
Types of AccountsStraightforward operational rules
Payment SystemsFeature and limit-based questions
Priority Sector LendingTarget percentage questions

Also Check:

Study PlanStudy Plan
JAIIB IE And IFS Study PlanJAIIB PPB Study Plan
JAIIB AFM Study PlanJAIIB RBWM Study Plan

How should you prepare based on repetitive trend?

Preparation should be structured around repetition, not randomness. Revise high-frequency areas first and practice MCQs repeatedly.

  • Revise core concepts from repetitive topics
  • Practice 50–100 MCQs from high-weightage areas
  • Focus on understanding options, not just answers
  • Revise Acts like the Negotiable Instruments Act clearly
  • Attempt mock tests to analyse weak zones
  • Revisit mistakes within 24 hours

What modules are covered under the JAIIB PPB syllabus?

The bankers must note that the JAIIB PPB Syllabus is further divided into 4 modules. These modules are:

  • Module A : General Banking Operations
  • Module B : Functions of Banks
  • Module C : Banking Technology
  • Module D : Ethics in Banks and Financial Institutions

Also Check,

Related TopicsLink
50 Most Repetitive JAIIB AFM MCQsClick here to Check
50 Most Repetitive JAIIB RBWM MCQs Click here to Check
50 Most Repetitive JAIIB IE & IFS MCQsClick here to Check

FAQs

1. Are numerical questions asked in PPB?

Yes, but they are limited and mostly based on banking calculations, interest, and financial ratios.

2. Which topics are most repetitive in PPB?

Topics like credit cards, RTGS/NEFT, partnership firms, LLP, RBI regulations, digital banking, and PSL are highly repetitive.

3. How to use the repetitive MCQs PDF?

You can practice and revise quickly using the PDF to focus on high-probability questions.