Practicing syllogism questions is one of the most effective ways to strengthen your reasoning ability for the SBI PO exam. This topic is highly scoring and regularly appears in both Prelims and Mains. It tests your ability to logically connect statements and draw valid conclusions using structured thinking and Venn diagram approaches. Regular practice helps you improve speed, accuracy, and decision-making under exam pressure.
SBI PO Syllogism Questions, FREE PDF
To support your preparation, we have compiled a free SBI PO Syllogism Questions PDF designed especially for banking aspirants. This PDF includes multiple practice sets based on all, some, no, either-or, possibility, and advanced mixed conclusions. By practicing from this PDF, you will:
- Strengthen core logical reasoning concepts
- Master Venn diagram-based solving techniques
- Learn exam-level tricks and shortcuts
- Improve accuracy in tricky conclusion-based questions
SBI PO Syllogism Practice Questions, LIVE Quiz
Syllogism is an important topic in the reasoning section of SBI PO exams, where candidates are required to analyze statements and identify logically correct conclusions. These questions are based on set relationships like inclusion, exclusion, and partial overlap between different entities.
Set 1: Para Jumble Questions
Q1. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “It has since become one of the largest cooperative banks in the country, serving millions of rural customers.”
B. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in 1982 to provide credit support to the agricultural sector.
C. “However, challenges such as loan defaults and inadequate infrastructure continue to hinder its full potential.”
D. NABARD works closely with state governments and regional rural banks to channel funds effectively.
E. “Despite these hurdles, the bank remains committed to the financial inclusion of underprivileged farming communities.”
Q2. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a pivotal role in regulating the country’s monetary policy.
B. “It sets the repo rate, which directly influences the cost of borrowing for commercial banks.”
C. “These measures, in turn, affect the rate of inflation and economic growth across sectors.”
D. “Furthermore, the RBI supervises and controls scheduled banks to ensure financial stability.”
E. This comprehensive oversight makes the central bank a cornerstone of India’s financial architecture.
Q3. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. The scheme was later extended to urban areas following its overwhelming success in villages.
B. A pilot project was launched in 2018 in select rural districts to test its feasibility.
C. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) aims to bring every household under the formal banking system.
D. “By 2023, over 50 crore accounts had been opened under the initiative, surpassing all initial targets.”
E. Such remarkable outreach has helped reduce dependence on informal moneylenders among the rural poor.
Q4. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “Moreover, it provides a platform for price discovery, helping farmers fetch better returns.”
B. The e-National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is an online trading portal launched in 2016 to integrate agricultural markets.
C. “So far, more than 1,000 mandis across 18 states have been linked to the portal.”
D. “However, poor internet connectivity in rural areas remains a significant barrier to its adoption.”
E. Stakeholders suggest upgrading digital infrastructure to maximize the portal’s reach and effectiveness.
Q5. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “She later received the Padma Bhushan in 2010, recognising her decades of contribution to science.”
B. “Dr. Tessy Thomas, known as the ‘Missile Woman of India,’ led the Agni-IV missile project as its Project Director.”
C. The success of Agni-IV made her the first woman scientist to head a missile project in the country.
D. Her journey began in the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in the early 1990s.
E. This achievement inspired a generation of young women to pursue careers in defence research and technology.
Q6. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “In addition, the government allocated ₹1.5 lakh crore in the Union Budget 2024-25 specifically for railway modernisation.”
B. “Indian Railways is one of the world’s largest rail networks, transporting over 8 billion passengers annually.”
C. The introduction of Vande Bharat Express trains marked a significant leap in passenger comfort and speed.
D. “However, issues such as aging infrastructure and frequent derailments pose serious safety concerns.”
E. Experts recommend a dedicated safety commission and increased investment in track maintenance to address these issues.
Q7. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. An application was filed before the National Green Tribunal (NGT) demanding stricter enforcement of emission norms.
B. The tribunal directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to submit an action-taken report within three months.
C. Delhi’s air quality index (AQI) frequently breaches the ‘severe’ category during winter months.
D. “The board, however, cited a lack of resources and personnel as reasons for delayed compliance.”
E. These systemic failures highlight the urgent need for an integrated urban air quality management framework.
Q8. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The bank reported a net profit of ₹14,845 crore in Q2 FY2025, reflecting a 35% year-on-year growth.”
B. State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank in the country by assets and market capitalisation.
C. “Its non-performing asset (NPA) ratio declined to 2.13%, the lowest in over a decade.”
D. “Similarly, its capital adequacy ratio improved to 14.28%, exceeding the regulatory requirement of 11.5%.”
E. These robust indicators suggest that SBI is well-positioned to support India’s credit-intensive growth aspirations.
Q9. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. A study published in The Lancet in 2023 found that air pollution causes over 16 lakh premature deaths in India annually.
B. The government launched the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2019 with a target to reduce particulate matter by 40% by 2026.
C. “However, progress has been uneven, with several cities failing to meet interim targets set for 2024.”
D. “These cities include Patna, Lucknow, and Agra, which continue to record PM2.5 levels well above safe limits.”
E. Policy experts suggest integrating NCAP with urban planning and public transport expansion for sustained improvement.
Q10. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. He went on to become the Chief of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2022.
B. S. Somanath began his career as a scientist at ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thiruvananthapuram.
C. “Under his leadership, India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission successfully landed on the Moon’s south pole in August 2023.”
D. This made India the first country in the world to achieve a soft landing near the lunar south pole.
E. Somanath’s vision and relentless pursuit of self-reliance in space technology have redefined India’s global standing.
Q11. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. The policy mandates that all new commercial buildings must achieve a minimum 3-star green rating by 2027.
B. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) introduced a revised Star Labelling Programme for appliances in 2023.
C. “Similarly, it extended the programme to industrial equipment such as motors and compressors.”
D. “However, enforcement remains weak, with only 30% of eligible manufacturers complying with the updated norms.”
E. Strengthening regulatory oversight and providing financial incentives to compliant firms can accelerate adoption.
Q12. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. A report by McKinsey (2024) estimated that generative AI could add $4.4 trillion annually to the global economy.
B. Artificial Intelligence (AI) has emerged as one of the most transformative technologies of the 21st century.
C. “The report further highlighted sectors like healthcare, finance, and education as the biggest beneficiaries.”
D. “However, concerns about job displacement, data privacy, and algorithmic bias have sparked global debates.”
E. Governments worldwide are therefore working to establish robust regulatory frameworks to harness AI responsibly.
Q13. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “In 2023, the scheme covered over 12 crore farmers, with direct transfers exceeding ₹2.4 lakh crore since inception.”
B. “The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) was launched in 2019 to provide income support of ₹6,000 per year to small farmers.”
C. “However, exclusion errors remain a major concern, with eligible farmers being left out due to land record discrepancies.”
D. The government has introduced an Aadhaar-linked verification process to address these grievances.
E. These corrective steps are expected to make the scheme more inclusive and administratively efficient over time.
Q14. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The spacecraft successfully entered Mars orbit on September 24, 2014, after a 10-month journey.”
B. “India’s Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), popularly called Mangalyaan, was launched by ISRO on November 5, 2013.”
C. This made India the first Asian nation and the fourth space agency globally to reach Mars.
D. “Furthermore, India achieved this feat on its very first attempt, at a cost of just ₹450 crore.”
E. Mangalyaan’s success inspired a renewed focus on interplanetary exploration within the Indian scientific community.
Q15. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. An expert committee was constituted to examine the economic feasibility of a Universal Basic Income (UBI) model for India.
B. The Economic Survey 2016-17 first proposed the idea of a Universal Basic Income as an alternative to existing welfare schemes.
C. “The committee submitted its report in 2019, recommending a pilot programme in three states.”
D. “However, the proposal faced resistance from economists who feared it would disincentivise work among the poor.”
E. “Despite this opposition, several state governments have since introduced quasi-UBI schemes targeting specific vulnerable groups.”
Q16. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The fund aims to mobilise ₹20,000 crore by 2026 to support clean energy transition in developing nations.”
B. “At the COP28 summit held in Dubai in December 2023, world leaders debated the operationalisation of the Loss and Damage Fund.”
C. “Developed nations pledged $700 million initially, far below the $400 billion annually demanded by vulnerable countries.”
D. This gap between pledges and requirements reflects the deepening trust deficit in global climate negotiations.
E. Experts argue that binding commitments and transparent monitoring mechanisms are essential for the fund to be effective.
Q17. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “A formal agreement was signed between India and UAE in 2022, facilitating trade in Indian rupees.”
B. India has been actively pursuing bilateral trade agreements with multiple nations to reduce dependence on the US dollar.
C. “The agreement allowed Indian exporters to settle payments in their local currency, lowering transaction costs.”
D. “However, currency volatility and limited global acceptance of the rupee remain significant obstacles.”
E. “Strengthening rupee internationalisation requires coordinated efforts between the RBI, SEBI, and the Ministry of Finance.”
Q18. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. The portal received over 1.2 crore applications within the first week of its launch.
B. The Ministry of Education launched a new centralised scholarship portal in July 2023 to streamline financial aid for students.
C. “However, technical glitches and server overloads frustrated many applicants, especially those from rural areas.”
D. The ministry subsequently deployed additional servers and introduced a helpline number to address grievances.
E. These measures ensured that nearly 90% of the eligible applicants successfully completed their registration by September 2023.
Q19. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. The company reported a 120% increase in electric vehicle (EV) sales during the April–September 2024 period.
B. “Tata Motors has emerged as India’s leading electric vehicle manufacturer, with a market share of over 60%.”
C. Its Nexon EV and Tiago EV models have been particularly popular among first-time EV buyers.
D. “Despite this dominance, the company faces stiff competition from new entrants like BYD and Ola Electric.”
E. “To maintain its edge, Tata Motors plans to launch six new EV models and expand its charging network by 2026.”
Q20. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “A report by the World Health Organisation (WHO) estimated that by 2050, antimicrobial resistance could kill 10 million people annually.”
B. Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is increasingly being recognised as one of the gravest threats to global public health.
C. The report emphasised that 70% of currently used antibiotics in livestock farming are classified as critically important for human medicine.
D. “In response, India’s National Action Plan on AMR (2017–2021) sought to regulate antibiotic use in both human and veterinary medicine.”
E. “However, implementation gaps and lack of surveillance data have significantly hampered the plan’s effectiveness.”
Q21. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “It later expanded to 36 cities by 2023, becoming a model for sustainable urban mobility in Asia.”
B. A metro rail project was first proposed for Bengaluru in 1994 to address growing traffic congestion.
C. “The first phase of Namma Metro was inaugurated in October 2011, covering 6.7 km between Baiyappanahalli and MG Road.”
D. “However, land acquisition challenges and funding disputes delayed Phase 2 completion by nearly four years.”
E. “The Bengaluru Metropolitan Rail Corporation (BMRC) is now working on Phase 3, which will add 44.65 km to the network.”
Q22. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The 16th Finance Commission, constituted in December 2023, will determine the tax devolution formula for the 2026–2031 period.”
B. Finance Commissions in India are constitutionally mandated bodies that decide the distribution of central taxes between the Union and states.
C. Southern states have raised concerns over the current formula, arguing that it penalises them for better development outcomes.
D. “However, the Union government maintains that the formula adequately balances equity and efficiency considerations.”
E. Arriving at a consensus will require extensive deliberations between the Centre and all 28 states and 8 Union Territories.
Q23. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. A clinical trial conducted at AIIMS Delhi in 2023 reported an 87% success rate in patients with advanced cervical cancer.
B. “India’s first indigenously developed cervical cancer vaccine, Cervavac, was approved by DCGI in January 2023.”
C. The vaccine targets four strains of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) that are responsible for over 80% of cervical cancer cases in India.
D. “Furthermore, Cervavac is priced at ₹200 per dose, making it significantly more affordable than imported alternatives.”
E. Experts hope that its inclusion in the Universal Immunisation Programme will substantially reduce the cervical cancer burden in India.
Q24. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The scheme provides a subsidy of ₹78,000 to first-time homebuyers in urban areas with an annual income below ₹18 lakh.”
B. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) was launched in 2015 with the aim of providing affordable housing to all by 2022.
C. “However, the target was revised to 2024, as construction was delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.”
D. “By March 2024, over 1.18 crore houses had been completed under the scheme, benefiting economically weaker sections.”
E. Experts suggest that integrating PMAY-U with Smart City infrastructure will enhance the quality of urban living for beneficiaries.
Q25. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The summit, attended by leaders from 83 developing nations, concluded with the New Delhi Declaration reaffirming commitment to sustainable development.”
B. “India assumed the G20 Presidency on December 1, 2022, marking the first time the country chaired this influential grouping.”
C. The G20 New Delhi Summit in September 2023 became historic with the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member.
D. “Moreover, India steered consensus on key issues including debt restructuring for low-income countries and digital public infrastructure.”
E. This diplomatic achievement significantly elevated India’s stature as a key voice for the Global South in international forums.
Q26. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “It operates through a network of 4,500 branches and 16,000 ATMs across all 28 states and 8 Union Territories.”
B. “Punjab National Bank (PNB) is one of India’s oldest nationalised banks, founded in 1894 in Lahore.”
C. “In 2020, PNB merged with Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India, becoming the second-largest public sector bank in the country.”
D. “However, the bank continues to battle a legacy of non-performing assets, which stood at ₹55,000 crore as of March 2024.”
E. “PNB’s management has outlined a turnaround strategy focusing on retail credit growth, digital banking, and recovery of bad loans.”
Q27. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. An independent auditor was appointed to ensure transparent utilisation of the allocated funds.
B. “The Union Cabinet approved a ₹10,000 crore package for the textile sector in February 2024 to boost exports and employment.”
C. “The package includes incentives for technical textiles, man-made fibres, and apparel manufacturing units.”
D. “However, industry bodies expressed concern that small and medium enterprises may not meet the stringent eligibility criteria.”
E. The government has assured that guidelines will be simplified to ensure wider participation across all scales of textile production.
Q28. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The rupee depreciated by nearly 4% against the dollar in 2023, partly attributed to capital outflows triggered by US Fed rate hikes.”
B. “India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at $645 billion as of March 2024, among the highest in Asia.”
C. “However, the reserve buffer came under pressure during periods of global risk aversion and rising crude oil prices.”
D. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) intervened in the forex market on multiple occasions to prevent excessive volatility.
E. “Such proactive intervention, economists note, helped India avoid a currency crisis unlike several other emerging economies.”
Q29. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. “The university produces over 3,000 research publications annually and holds more than 500 active patents.”
B. The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay was established in 1958 under an Act of Parliament.
C. “Its alumni include industry leaders, Nobel laureates, and government officials who have shaped India’s technological progress.”
D. “In 2024, it ranked 118th globally in the QS World University Rankings, its highest-ever international ranking.”
E. “Despite its achievements, IIT Bombay faces challenges in expanding faculty strength and post-doctoral research opportunities.”
Q30. Rearrange A–E into a coherent paragraph.
A. A new initiative was introduced in 2023 to certify hospitals based on patient safety protocols and infection control standards.
B. India’s healthcare system faces a significant gap between public health infrastructure and the growing disease burden.
C. “The initiative was welcomed by private hospitals, which constitute nearly 80% of tertiary care capacity in the country.”
D. “However, rural primary health centres remain largely unaffected by such quality assurance programmes due to resource constraints.”
E. Policymakers must prioritise last-mile health delivery to achieve India’s goal of Universal Health Coverage by 2030.
Quiz Summary
Set 3: Statements
All stars are planets.
All planets are moons.
Some moons are comets.
No comet is an asteroid.
Q1. Conclusions: I. All stars are moons. II. Some comets are planets.
Q2. Conclusions: I. Some moons are stars. II. Some planets are stars.
Q3. Conclusions: I. Some moons are not asteroids. II. All stars being comets is a possibility.
Q4. Conclusions: I. No star is an asteroid. II. Some comets are stars.
Q5. Conclusions: I. All asteroids being moons is a possibility. II. No moon is a planet.
Set 4: Statements & Conclusions
Statements:
Only a few students are toppers.
All toppers are scholars.
No scholar is an ignoramus.
Some ignoramuses are thinkers.
Q1. Conclusions:
I. All students being scholars is a possibility.
II. No student is a scholar.
Q2. Conclusions:
I. No topper is an ignoramus.
II. Some students are scholars.
Q3. Conclusions:
I. Some students are not toppers.
II. Some thinkers are not scholars.
Q4. Conclusions:
I. All scholars being students is a possibility.
II. No student is an ignoramus.
Q5. Conclusions:
I. Some thinkers are toppers.
II. All thinkers being toppers is a possibility.
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