The RBI Grade B Phase 2 exam is an important stage of the RBI Grade B recruitment process. It covers Economic & Social Issues (ESI), Finance & Management (FM), and English Writing Skills. Solving RBI Grade B Phase 2 previous year questions helps candidates understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, important topics, and question trends. Regular practice also improves answer writing, accuracy, and confidence for the exam.
Download RBI Grade B Phase 2 Previous Year Paper
Downloading RBI Grade B Phase 2 previous year papers is one of the most effective ways to start your exam preparation. These papers help candidates understand the latest exam pattern, question types, difficulty level, and important topics asked in the examination.
Attempt RBI Grade B Phase 2 PYQs
Attempting RBI Grade B Phase 2 Previous Year Questions (PYQs) helps candidates evaluate their preparation level and gain confidence for the actual examination.
1. Angikaar Campaign 2025 runs from ______ to ______ across more than ______ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
2. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) and PMAY-U 2.0, consider the following statements: (I) Under PMAY-U, 120 lakh houses have been sanctioned. (II) Out of the sanctioned houses, 94.11 lakh houses have been completed and delivered. (III) Under PMAY-U 2.0, one crore additional urban families will receive financial support up to ₹2.50 lakh. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Consider the following cases regarding eligibility under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY): (I) Ramesh, aged 25 years, has a savings bank account and gives consent for auto-debit of the premium. (II) Sita, aged 72 years, holds a savings bank account and wishes to enrol under the scheme. (III) Abdul, aged 45 years, does not have a bank account but is willing to pay the premium in cash. (IV) Meena, aged 69 years, has a savings bank account and agrees to auto-debit of premium. Which of the above individuals is/are eligible to enrol under PMSBY?
4. With reference to eligibility under CARA (Central Adoption Resource Authority) rules for prospective adoptive parents, consider the following statements: (I) The prospective adoptive parents must be physically, mentally, and emotionally stable and financially capable. (II) A single male is eligible to adopt a girl child under CARA guidelines. (III) There is an upper age limit prescribed for prospective adoptive parents based on the age of the child. (IV) Consent of both spouses is required in case of married couples seeking adoption. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
5. With reference to eligibility under the National Pension System (NPS), consider the following statements: (I) Any Indian citizen between 18 and 70 years of age can join NPS. (II) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) are eligible to subscribe to NPS subject to regulatory norms. (III) Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) are eligible to open an NPS account. (IV) Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) are eligible to open an NPS account. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
6. With reference to PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, consider the following statements: (I) The scheme has a total outlay of ₹75,021 crore. (II) It aims to install rooftop solar systems for 1 crore households. (III) It provides up to 500 units of free electricity per month to beneficiaries. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
7. With reference to the objectives of the SHRESHTHA scheme, consider the following statements: (I) It seeks to bridge educational disparities faced by SC students. (II) It promotes social inclusion through access to high-quality schooling. (III) It is exclusively meant for higher education at the university level. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
8. Consider the following cases regarding eligibility under PM SVANidhi Scheme: (I) Raju was vending fruits in an urban area before 24 March 2020 and possesses a valid Certificate of Vending. (II) Meena started street vending in July 2021 and does not have proof of prior vending before March 2020. (III) Karim was identified in the ULB-led survey but does not have a Certificate of Vending; however, he has a Letter of Recommendation issued by the ULB. (IV) Sita operates a small shop in a permanent commercial complex registered under GST. Which of the above individuals is/are eligible to avail benefits under PM SVANidhi?
9. Between April 2024 and December 2025, more than _______ lakh candidates were trained across _______ States and _____ districts under PMKVY 4.0.
10. Under the Lakhpati Didi Initiative, the Government aims to create how many ‘Lakhpati Didis’ (women earning ₹1 lakh or more annually)?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 11–14: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
India’s agricultural sector continues to employ nearly half of the workforce while contributing a relatively smaller share to GDP, reflecting persistent issues of low productivity, income volatility, and structural inefficiencies. The Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) represents a broader policy push towards enhancing farm income security and strengthening rural demand. PMDDKY ensures convergence of 36 existing schemes across 11 ministries for integrated district-level implementation, inspired by the Aspirational Districts Programme model. Districts are selected based on low productivity, low cropping intensity, and lower credit indicators, with at least one district from each State/UT selected. The scheme features a dedicated Kisan mobile app, a District Ranking System linked to a central dashboard, and monitoring through 117 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs).
11. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), consider the following statements: (I) The scheme has an annual outlay of ₹24,000 crore. (II) It will be implemented for a period of five years beginning FY 2025–26. (III) The total financial commitment over the entire duration amounts to ₹1.44 lakh crore. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
12. Which of the following best describes a core structural feature of PMDDKY?
13. Under PMDDKY, consider the following mechanisms proposed for transparency and monitoring: (I) Development of a dedicated Kisan mobile application. (II) Introduction of a District Ranking System linked to a central dashboard. (III) Tracking progress through 117 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
14. With reference to the selection of districts under PMDDKY, consider the following statements: (I) Districts are identified based on low productivity and low cropping intensity. (II) At least one district from each State/UT will be selected. (III) District selection is primarily based on high export potential. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 15–18: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
The Global Forest Resource Assessment (GFRA) 2025 provides a comprehensive evaluation of forest resources globally. India has moved to the 9th position globally in total forest area, holds the 3rd position globally in net annual forest area gain, and ranks 5th among global carbon sinks with forests removing 150 Mt CO2 annually during 2021–2025. The world’s total forest area stands at approximately 4.14 billion hectares, covering around 32% of global land area. Annual net forest loss declined from 10.7 million hectares (1990-2000) to 4.12 million hectares (2015–2025). More than 54% (not 75%) of the world’s forests are concentrated in five countries. India accounts for approximately 72,739 thousand hectares of forest area, ranks 5th globally in rubber plantation area (831 thousand hectares), and contributes about 9% of global wood removals.
15. With reference to India’s position in GFRA 2025, consider the following statements: (I) India ranks 9th globally in terms of total forest area. (II) India ranks 3rd globally in terms of net annual forest area gain. (III) India ranks 1st globally in terms of total carbon sink contribution during 2021–2025. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
16. With reference to global forest statistics under GFRA 2025, consider the following statements: (I) The total global forest area is approximately 4.14 billion hectares, covering around 32% of Earth’s land area. (II) The annual rate of net forest loss declined from 10.7 million hectares (1990–2000) to 4.12 million hectares (2015–2025). (III) More than 75% of the world’s forests are located in five countries. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
17. With reference to India’s forest carbon dynamics during 2021–2025, consider the following statements: (I) India’s forests removed approximately 150 million tonnes of CO2 per year during 2021–2025. (II) Globally, forests acted as a net carbon sink of 3.6 Gt CO2 annually during 2021–2025. (III) Net global forest carbon removals during 2021–2025 were higher than a decade earlier. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
18. Consider the following statements regarding India’s forestry and agroforestry achievements: (I) India accounts for approximately ____ thousand hectares of global forest area. (II) India ranks _____ globally in rubber plantation area with about 831 thousand hectares. (III) India contributes about ______ of global wood removals. Which of the following options correctly fills the blanks?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 19–22: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
The economic reforms initiated in 1991 (LPG reforms — Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation) were triggered by a severe balance of payments crisis. They included industrial delicensing, trade liberalisation, exchange rate rationalisation, and fiscal consolidation. The Narasimhan Committee I recommended achieving a minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 8%. The Narasimhan Committee II (late 1990s) focused on prudential regulation, capital adequacy, reducing NPAs, and promoting competition. It recommended: mergers among major PSBs but cautioned against merging strong banks with weak ones; the concept of Narrow Banking for high-NPA banks; reducing NPAs to 3% by 2002; and increasing minimum start-up capital for foreign banks from $10 million to $25 million. Financial reforms aimed to shift from state-dominated credit allocation to market-oriented financial intermediation.
19. With reference to the 1991 LPG reforms, consider the following statements: (I) The reforms were primarily initiated in response to a severe balance of payments crisis. (II) Industrial delicensing and trade liberalisation were key components of the reform package. (III) The reforms completely eliminated the role of the public sector in the Indian economy. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
20. With reference to the relationship between the 1991 LPG reforms and subsequent financial sector reforms in India, consider the following statements: (I) The shift towards a market-oriented economy necessitated strengthening of prudential regulation and banking supervision. (II) Financial sector reforms aimed to improve capital adequacy, transparency, and risk management. (III) The objective of financial sector reforms was to expand directed credit programmes to sustain state-led industrialisation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
21. With reference to the recommendations of the Narasimhan Committee II (1998), consider the following statements: (I) The Committee recommended merger of major public sector banks but cautioned against merging strong banks with weak banks. (II) It proposed the concept of Narrow Banking for banks suffering from high NPAs. (III) It recommended expansion of directed credit programmes to revive weak public sector banks. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
22. Consider the following statements regarding Narasimhan Committee recommendations: (I) The Narasimhan Committee I recommended achieving a minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio of ______. (II) The Narasimhan Committee II recommended reducing NPAs of banks to _____ by 2002. (III) The Narasimhan Committee II proposed increasing the minimum start-up capital requirement for foreign banks to ______. Which of the following correctly fills the blanks?
Quiz Summary
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1. JAM Trinity stands for:
2. The Contingency Fund of India is presently authorised at:
3. SEBI’s T+2 timeline is applicable for which of the following?
4. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) primarily measures:
5. When the RBI purchases government securities under Open Market Operations, it generally:
6. An inverted yield curve generally indicates:
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 7–10: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) was established by the Government of India in April 2021 as India’s fifth All India Financial Institution. It functions as a dedicated Development Finance Institution (DFI) to address gaps in long-term infrastructure financing. NaBFID supports non-recourse infrastructure financing and the development of bond and derivatives markets. Its authorised share capital is ₹1 lakh crore. The Government infused initial capital of ₹20,000 crore and a grant of ₹5,000 crore. NaBFID has sanctioned more than ₹86,804 crore and is projected to sanction over ₹3 lakh crore by March 2026.
7. As per the latest data, NaBFID has made total sanctions amounting to more than:
8. NaBFID is expected to sanction over how much amount by March 2026?
9. With reference to NaBFID, consider the following statements: (I) NaBFID was set up in April 2021 as India’s fifth All India Financial Institution. (II) It supports long-term non-recourse infrastructure financing, including development of bond and derivatives markets. (III) It functions purely as a commercial bank without any developmental objective. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10. Consider the following statements regarding NaBFID’s capital structure: (I) The authorised share capital of NaBFID is ₹ ________. (II) The Government of India has infused an initial capital of ₹ ______ along with a grant of ₹ ______. Which of the following correctly fills the blanks?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 11–13: Use the following data to answer the questions.
Reserves = ₹6,00,000 | Equity = ₹4,00,000 | Debt to Net Worth Ratio = 0.5 | Assets Turnover Ratio = 2:1 | Gross Profit = 30% on Sales
11. What is the Total Debt?
12. What are the Total Liabilities?
13. What is the Gross Profit?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 14–16: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
NDS-OM (Negotiated Dealing System – Order Matching) is a screen-based electronic anonymous order-matching system for secondary market trading in government securities (G-Secs). Primary membership is open to entities maintaining Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) accounts with RBI, such as banks, primary dealers, insurance companies, and mutual funds. Gilt Account Holders (GAHs) can access NDS-OM through an internet-based web module, subject to approval by primary members. NDS-OM enhances price discovery, reduces information asymmetry, and supports RBI’s monetary policy by building a reliable yield curve for pricing corporate bonds.
14. Gilt Account Holders (GAHs) can access NDS-OM through which of the following?
15. With reference to NDS-OM, consider the following statements: (I) NDS-OM is a screen-based electronic anonymous order-matching system for secondary market trading in government securities. (II) Membership of the system is open only to individuals and retail investors directly. (III) Entities that maintain Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) accounts with RBI are permitted to become primary members of NDS-OM. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
16. NDS-OM contributes to monetary policy transmission primarily by:
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 17–18: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
The Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) is an electronic platform facilitating financing of MSME trade receivables through multiple financiers. It enables digital uploading, acceptance, and discounting of invoices. Competitive bidding among financiers ensures market-determined rates. The turnover threshold for mandatory onboarding by Corporates and CPSEs has been reduced to ₹250 crore. Five entities are currently operating TReDS in India.
17. How many entities are presently operating TReDS in India?
18. The monetary limit for mandatory onboarding on TReDS for Corporates and CPSEs has been reduced to a turnover of:
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 19–20: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are regulated investment vehicles under SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, enabling sponsors to pool income-generating infrastructure assets and offer units to investors. InvITs must invest at least 80% of assets in revenue-generating infrastructure assets. A sponsor must have a minimum net worth of ₹100 crore to qualify.
19. As per SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, an InvIT is required to invest at least what percentage of its assets in revenue-generating infrastructure assets?
20. As per SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, what is the minimum net worth required for a body corporate/LLP/company to qualify as a sponsor of an InvIT?
Part B: Management — Objective Questions
1. Ethical absolutism refers to:
2. Upward communication in an organization refers to:
3. Span of control refers to:
4. According to Maslow, which of the following is the highest level of need?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 5–7: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Ethical decision-making is foundational to effective management. Three key ethical frameworks operate in business contexts: (1) Utilitarian approach — maximizes overall benefits and minimizes harm (consequence-based). (2) Deontological ethics — focuses on duties and moral principles, irrespective of outcomes. (3) Virtue ethics — emphasizes character and moral qualities of the decision-maker. These frameworks guide corporate governance, stakeholder management, employee relations, and sustainability practices.
5. Which of the following ethical perspectives focuses primarily on maximizing overall benefits and minimizing harm?
6. With reference to ethical theories in management, consider the following statements: (I) Deontological ethics emphasizes adherence to duties and moral principles irrespective of outcomes. (II) Virtue ethics focuses on the character and moral qualities of decision-makers. (III) Utilitarian ethics rejects consideration of consequences in managerial decision-making. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
7. A company faces financial stress. The Board suggests delaying employee salaries while continuing executive bonuses to maintain leadership morale. The Managing Director rejects this, arguing that fairness, integrity, and moral character must guide leadership decisions even during crisis. Which ethical perspective is most reflected in this decision?
PASSAGE FOR QUESTIONS 8–10: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Three classical management approaches are compared: (1) Scientific Management — emerged during industrialisation, emphasises systematic observation, measurement, and standardisation to find the ‘one best way’ of performing tasks; improves efficiency, productivity, and cost reduction. (2) Human Relations Approach — emphasises social and psychological needs of workers; argues financial incentives alone are insufficient; may underemphasise formal structure and productivity targets. (3) Bureaucratic Approach — emphasises formal hierarchy, clear roles, and rule-based functioning; criticised for rigidity, procedural delays, and slow decision-making; does not enhance flexibility or rapid innovation.
8. The primary objective of the Scientific Management approach is to:
9. With reference to the Human Relations approach, consider the following statements: (I) It recognizes the importance of social and psychological needs of employees. (II) It assumes that financial incentives are the only motivators of employees. (III) It may underemphasise formal organizational structure and productivity targets. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10. With reference to the Bureaucratic approach to management, consider the following statements: (I) It promotes clarity of roles and formal hierarchy. (II) It enhances flexibility and rapid innovation. (III) It may lead to rigidity and procedural delays. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Quiz Summary
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Why should candidates solve RBI Grade B Phase 2 previous year questions?
RBI previous year questions help candidates understand the exam pattern, question types, important topics, and how questions are framed. Regular practice improves conceptual clarity, confidence, and prepares candidates for both objective and descriptive sections.
| Benefit | How It Helps |
|---|---|
| Understand Exam Pattern | Familiarizes candidates with actual question formats |
| Identify Important Topics | Highlights frequently asked concepts |
| Improve Accuracy | Reduces mistakes through practice |
| Better Time Management | Helps complete questions within the allotted time |
| Improve Answer Writing | Enhances descriptive answer presentation |
| Build Confidence | Creates exam readiness |
What subjects are covered in RBI Grade B Phase 2?
RBI Grade B Phase 2 includes three important papers that assess candidates’ knowledge of economics, finance, management, and communication skills. A well-planned preparation strategy helps aspirants understand each subject better and score well in all sections of the exam.
| Paper | Major Topics Covered |
| Economic & Social Issues (ESI) | Economy, Social Issues, Government Schemes, Sustainable Development |
| Finance & Management (FM) | Banking, Finance, Financial Markets, Management Theories |
| English Writing Skills | Essays, Precis Writing, Reading Comprehension |
What type of Economic & Social Issues questions are asked in RBI Grade B Phase 2?
The ESI section covers economic developments, government schemes, poverty alleviation, financial inclusion, sustainable development, and social welfare. Questions are often based on recent reports, committees, and government policies.
- PM Surya Ghar Yojana
- PM SVANidhi Scheme
- Lakhpati Didi Initiative
- PMKVY 4.0
- SHRESHTHA Scheme
- National Pension System (NPS)
- Udyam Assist Platform (UAP)
- Stand-Up India Scheme
- Narasimhan Committee Recommendations
- Global Forest Resource Assessment (GFRA)
What type of descriptive questions are asked in the ESI paper?
The descriptive section tests a candidate’s analytical ability and understanding of economic and social issues. Questions generally require structured answers with an introduction, body, examples, and conclusion.
| Topic | Marks |
| High-Quality Welfare Systems | 15 |
| Beijing+30 Action Agenda | 15 |
| Sustainable Development Goals | 15 |
| Smart Cities and Urban Growth | 10 |
| RBI Monetary Policy Measures | 10 |
| Multiculturalism in India | 10 |
What topics are covered in the Finance section?
The Finance section focuses on banking concepts, financial markets, monetary policy, infrastructure financing, financial institutions, and regulatory frameworks. Candidates should develop strong conceptual understanding rather than relying only on memorization.
- JAM Trinity
- Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
- Open Market Operations (OMO)
- Yield Curve
- NaBFID
- TReDS
- NDS-OM
- Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
- Financial Ratios
- Financial Inclusion Initiatives
What topics are covered in the Management section?
The Management section evaluates a candidate’s understanding of organizational behavior, leadership, communication, ethics, and motivation theories. Questions are generally concept-based and require practical understanding.
- Ethics and Integrity
- Communication
- Leadership
- Motivation Theories
- Organizational Behaviour
- Decision Making
- Scientific Management
- Human Relations Approach
- Corporate Governance
How should candidates use previous year questions effectively?
Solving previous year questions should be a regular part of preparation rather than a last-minute activity. Candidates should analyze mistakes, revise weak areas, and identify recurring themes after every practice session.
- Solve topic-wise questions first.
- Revise concepts after every practice session.
- Create short notes from repeated topics.
- Practice descriptive answers regularly.
- Focus on current affairs linked to ESI and FM.
- Attempt mock tests after completing PYQs.
- Analyze mistakes and improve weak areas.
FAQs
Previous year questions help you understand the exam pattern, important topics, and difficulty level.
Direct questions may not repeat, but concepts and themes are often repeated.
The questions cover Economic & Social Issues (ESI), Finance & Management (FM), and English Writing Skills.
Yes, they help candidates understand the expected answer structure and presentation style.
Review every answer, identify weak areas, and revise the related concepts thoroughly.
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