SEBI Grade A PYPs, Download Free Previous Year Papers PDF

1. As of 2024, which among the following Indian-origin mathematicians is the only recipient of the prestigious Abel Prize?

2. Which of the following regulatory authorities is responsible for overseeing the functioning and regulation of Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in India?

3. Which of the following Indian cities has recently earned the distinction of becoming the country's first member of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network under the category of 'City of Literature'?

4. The Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) has awarded the hosting rights for the 10th edition of the FIFA Women's World Cup, scheduled to be held in 2027, to which of the following countries?

5. The DigiLocker platform enables citizens to securely store and access various official digital documents issued by authorised institutions. Which of the following categories of documents can be uploaded or accessed through DigiLocker?

6. Individuals opting to file their income tax return using ITR-4 (Sugam) are subject to an annual income threshold. What is the maximum annual income permitted for filing ITR-4?

7. Before its shareholding was transferred to a consortium of leading banks, Central Depository Services (India) Limited (CDSL) was originally promoted by which of the following entities?

8. In 2024, who became the first Indian to receive South Africa's prestigious 'Nelson Mandela Lifetime Achievement Award' in recognition of contributions to the film industry?

9. Which of the following companies introduced the world's first large-scale 100% hydrogen-ready engine power plant, marking a significant milestone towards carbon-neutral power generation?

10. According to Kroll's latest celebrity brand valuation report titled 'Brands, Business, Bollywood', who emerged as the most valuable celebrity personality?

11. Under the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), an Established Incubation Centre (EIC) must have been operational for at least how many years to qualify for financial scale-up support?

12. What is the maximum investment limit prescribed under the National Savings Certificate (NSC) – VIII Issue?

13. Indian Railways successfully conducted the trial run of a MEMU train on the world's highest railway bridge, which stands approximately 35 metres taller than the Eiffel Tower. This bridge has been constructed over which river?

14. SEBI, through its March 2024 circular on simplifying Offer Documents for Mutual Fund Schemes, introduced the acronym SID. In this context, what does the letter 'S' represent?

15. Which one of the following statements regarding the National Savings Recurring Deposit Account Scheme is incorrect?

16. Under the National Electricity Fund (Interest Subsidy) Scheme approved by the Government of India, which of the following is classified as a Special Category/Focused State?

17. Which of the following central banks are members of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?

18. The Financial Education Programme for Adults (FEPA), launched by the National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) in 2019, primarily targets which of the following groups?

19. How many medals did India secure at the Asian Armwrestling Championship 2024, held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan?

20. According to the World Economic Forum's Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2024, which of the following countries did not feature among the top five ranked destinations?

21. Direction (Q1-Q7) – Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The interaction between humans and the natural environment has resulted in extensive and far-reaching changes across ecosystems worldwide. Over the years, activities such as rapid urbanisation, industrial expansion, and large-scale deforestation have significantly altered the Earth's ecological balance. Industrial development, driven by increased dependence on machinery, infrastructure, and energy resources, has transformed natural landscapes and contributed to the destruction of habitats that once supported a rich diversity of plant and animal life. Forests, wetlands, and grasslands, which previously sustained numerous species, have steadily declined because of expanding human activities.
The growth of urban centres has further intensified environmental degradation. As cities continue to expand, they occupy previously undisturbed regions, fragmenting ecosystems and reducing the space available for wildlife. Such expansion not only causes habitat destruction but also leads to greater pollution as the demand for energy, transportation, housing, and other resources rises. Industrial emissions and vehicle exhaust have deteriorated air quality, creating serious health concerns for both humans and animals. Likewise, contamination of rivers, lakes, and groundwater through industrial discharge, agricultural runoff, and improper waste disposal has adversely affected aquatic ecosystems and the availability of safe water for human use.
Another major environmental concern is climate change, which is largely attributed to the increasing concentration of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere. The accumulation of these gases has accelerated global warming, disrupting long-established weather patterns and increasing the occurrence as well as the intensity of extreme climatic events. Floods, droughts, heatwaves, and severe storms are becoming more frequent, posing significant threats to agriculture, biodiversity, infrastructure, and human settlements across different regions.
Although technological progress and environmental awareness have improved considerably in recent decades, balancing economic development with ecological preservation continues to be a complex challenge. Governments, industries, and communities have adopted measures such as promoting sustainable practices, expanding renewable energy, and strengthening conservation initiatives to reduce environmental damage. Nevertheless, achieving long-term environmental sustainability requires continuous commitment, innovative policymaking, scientific advancements, and coordinated efforts from multiple stakeholders to ensure that developmental needs are met without compromising the well-being of future generations.
Q1.
According to the passage, which of the following has been identified as a major consequence of industrialisation on the natural environment?

22. What does the passage identify as a major impact of rapid urban expansion?

23. Which one of the following has NOT been highlighted in the passage as an environmental challenge?

24. According to the passage, climate change has resulted in which of the following outcomes?

25. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word "transformed" as used in the passage?

26. Which of the following words is the opposite in meaning of "degradation" as used in the passage?

27. The passage suggests that one of the greatest difficulties in achieving sustainable development is:

28. Directions (Q8–Q12)
Each sentence contains one blank. Choose the most appropriate word to complete the sentence.
Q8.
Handmade presents can be perfectly ________ to match the tastes and preferences of the recipient.

29. After carefully weighing all the options, Ted finally ________ not to travel overseas during the summer vacation.

30. Bryan remained completely ________ in his belief that the Earth is flat despite evidence to the contrary.

31. The craftsman was extremely ________ while preparing the noodles and refused to allow anyone else to perform the task.

32. Had it not been for the ________ circumstances, he would almost certainly have lost his employment.

33. Directions (Q13–Q16)
In each question, four words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) are highlighted. Some of these may be incorrectly placed. Identify the correct replacement.
Q13.
Some American officials lead (A) to hope that resumed sanctions (B) on Iran will appear (C) to a popular uprising (D).

34. Tariffs (A) has imported (B) higher China (C) on 603 items imposed (D) from the US.

35. NATO ally world (A) leads the Turkey (B) in the journalists (C) of number (D) jailed.

36. In 2016, rising (A) violence in Pathankot (B) by Islamic militants culminated (C) in attacks on Indian forces at Uri and Kashmir (D).

37. Directions (Q17–Q20)
Read each sentence carefully and identify the part containing the grammatical error. If there is no error, choose (E).
Q17.
She held something (A) / at her side which (B) / was totally hiding (C) / by the folds of her sari. (D) / No Error (E)

38. The father forbade his son (A) / to walk in the sun (B) / and play with (C) / his friends on the road. (D) / No Error (E)

39. The movement, which aims to (A) / raise awareness about climate change, hopes (B) / to bring people together to think about (C) / what they can do to reduce harmful pollution. (D) / No Error (E)

40. I declined the invitation (A) / not because I did not (B) / want to go but (C) / because I have no time. (D) / No Error (E)

41. A shopkeeper marks an article 80% above its cost price. After offering a 25% discount, he sells it for ₹1,620. At what price would the article be sold if, instead, a 15% discount had been allowed?

42. A vessel M contains 154 litres of a milk-water mixture in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively. Another vessel N contains 220 litres of mixture in which the quantity of water exceeds milk by 44 litres. If the contents of both vessels are mixed together, what will be the ratio of milk to water in the final mixture?

43. Out of ₹2,500, Ramlal invested ₹x at 20% compound interest per annum for 2 years and kept the remaining amount as savings. If the maturity value of the investment after two years was ₹2,160, how much money did he save?

44. Directions (Q4–Q6)
Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
Three schools A, B and C have male and female students.
School A has 480 male students, which is 25% more than the number of female students in School B.
The ratio of female students in B : C is 16 : 15.
School C has a total of 800 students.
The total number of male students in all three schools is 1,500.
The number of female students in School A is 160 fewer than the number of male students in School B.
Q4.
The number of female students in School C is what percentage more or less than the number of male students in School A?

45. Find the average number of female students across Schools A, B and C.

46. Find the ratio of the total students in School A to the combined number of male students in Schools B and C.

47. The present ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 4. Eight years from now, their ages will be in the ratio 7 : 6. If C is 4 years older than A, what is the present age ratio of B : C?

48. Directions (Q8–Q10)
Identify the incorrect number in each of the following number series.
Q8.
128, 238, 372, 526, 708, 918

49. 18, 109, 547, 2190, 6577, 13159

50. 51, 60, 79, 134, 215, 336

51. Directions (Q11–Q15)
Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The table below provides the number of MI Stores in five different cities, the average number of employees per store, and the ratio of male to female employees.
Q11.
What is the ratio of the male employees working in MI Stores of City A to the female employees working in MI Stores of City B?

52. Determine the total number of male employees in MI Stores located in City D.

53. Find the combined number of employees working in MI Stores of Cities A and C.

54. The number of female employees in MI Stores of City E is what percentage of the number of female employees in City B?

55. The number of male employees in City F is 18 more than that in City C. If the ratio of male to female employees in City F is 3 : 2, how many female employees are there in City F?

56. Set A consists of six consecutive odd numbers, while Set B contains five consecutive multiples of 3. The last element of Set A is equal to the second element of Set B. If the average of Set A is 16, what is the average of Set B?

57. Directions (Q17–Q20)
Each question contains two equations. Solve them separately and determine the relationship between x and y.
Q17
(I) x2−32x+240=0
(II) y2+8y+15=0

58. Q18
(I) x2+19x+78=0
(II) y2+4y−117=0

59. Q19
(I) 8×2−22x+15=0
(II) 3y2−13y+14=0

60. Q20
(I) 9×2−26x+16=0
(II) 3y2−16y+20=0

61. Directions (Q1–Q4)
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
A certain number of people are seated in a straight line facing north. No two known persons sit next to each other.
There are four persons between M and X, where X sits third to the right of F.
There are five persons between X and D.
There are four persons between D and S, and S is seated three places away from R.
R occupies one of the extreme ends.
The number of persons between M and F is the same as the number of persons between R and D.
C sits fifth to the right of F.
Q1.
How many people are seated in the row?

62. Who sits third to the right of C?

63. What is the position of S with respect to F?

64. How many persons are sitting between C and D?

65. Directions (Q5–Q8)
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Eight persons—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—are seated around a square table. Four persons occupy the corners and face the centre, while the remaining four sit at the middle of the sides and face outward.
Each person likes a different musical instrument—Flute, Violin, Cello, Sitar, Banjo, Drums, Guitar and Piano.
The following information is known:
P sits third to the left of Q, who likes Cello.
P does not like Guitar.
Exactly two persons sit between Q and R.
Q sits opposite the person who likes Piano.
S likes Flute and faces W, who likes Violin.
Neither R nor Q is adjacent to S.
U sits immediately to the left of the person who likes Banjo.
The person who likes Drums sits second to the right of T.
V, who is not seated at the middle of a side, sits second to the left of the person who likes Guitar.
Q5.
Who is seated third to the left of W?

66. Who sits fifth to the right of U?

67. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. R sits immediately to the left of T.
II. S sits second to the left of the person who likes Cello.
III. V faces W.

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

69. In the number 256749768, 2 is added to each prime digit, while 4 is subtracted from each non-prime digit. The resulting digits are then arranged in ascending order from left to right.
What is the difference between the digit that is third from the right and the digit that is fifth from the left in the new arrangement?

70. A statement is followed by three inferences numbered A, B, and C. Consider the statement to be true even if it appears to contradict commonly known facts. Determine which inference(s) logically follow(s).
Statement:
Although shepherding is one of the oldest and most respected occupations, shepherds have never attracted the same level of attention from American filmmakers as cowboys.
Inferences:
A. More American films have been made about cowboys than about shepherds.
B. Films featuring shepherds became popular before films based on cowboys.
C. Cowboys are generally younger than shepherds.

71. Read the following situation carefully and identify the most appropriate reason.
The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is evaluating applications from Country A and Country D to host the upcoming Olympic Games. While assessing the proposals, the IOC is considering factors such as infrastructure, sustainability, legacy planning, and overall preparedness. The final decision regarding the host country has not yet been announced.
Which of the following is the most plausible reason that could justify selecting Country A?

72. Directions (Q12–Q15)
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Six persons—A, B, C, D, E, and F—are seated in a straight line facing north. Each of them likes a different vegetable.
The following information is known:
F sits second from one of the extreme ends.
Exactly one person sits between D and F.
F likes neither Pumpkin nor Potato.
D does not like Potato, while C does not like Pumpkin.
The number of persons to the right of D is the same as the number of persons to the left of C.
The person who likes Bottle Gourd sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Spinach, who occupies an extreme end.
Neither B nor C likes Spinach.
B sits somewhere to the right of A, and A is not adjacent to D.
A likes Brinjal.
The person who likes Pumpkin is not seated adjacent to the person who likes Potato.
Q12.
Who sits immediately to the left of the person who likes Pumpkin?

73. Who is seated third to the right of C?

74. How many persons are sitting between the person who likes Capsicum and the person who likes Brinjal?

75. How many persons are sitting to the left of the person who likes Potato?

76. Directions (Q16–Q18)
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Eleven family members—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z—belong to a three-generation family. There are only three married couples in the family.
The following information is given:
Z is the sister of P.
R and S are brothers.
R is the brother-in-law of T, who has no siblings.
Q is the mother-in-law of U, who is the mother of X.
V and W are the sons of T and U, respectively.
S is the father of V.
P is the father-in-law of T.
X is the daughter of R.
T has only one daughter.
Q16.
How is Z related to X?

77. How is Q related to X?

78. How many female members are there in the family?

79. How many pairs of letters are there in the word "IMPOSING", each of which has the same number of letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical order (considering both forward and backward directions)?

80. If a meaningful three-letter word can be formed using the second, fourth, and tenth letters of the word "TRIANGULATION", what will be the last letter of the newly formed word?
Mark X as your answer if more than one meaningful word can be formed.
Mark Z if no meaningful word can be formed.

81. Which segment of the money market deals with funds borrowed for a period of more than one day but less than fifteen days?

82. A 10% debenture with a face value of ₹100 is currently trading at ₹80. What is its current yield?

83. Which of the following institutions is responsible for regulating the microfinance sector in India?

84. Which of the following institutions is supervised by NABARD?

85. A company intending to issue Commercial Paper (CP) must have a minimum tangible net worth of:

86. Which of the following best defines a Forward Rate Agreement (FRA)?

87. Securities are issued in dematerialised form in accordance with the provisions of which Act?

88. Which day count convention is generally followed in India for calculating bond days?

89. When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raises loans on behalf of State Governments, it is required to consult the Ministry of Finance and which of the following?

90. The International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) is a global body. What is its primary objective?

91. Which of the following is generally regarded as a risk-free investment instrument?

92. Which type of communication barrier arises when people develop different mindsets because of differences in their backgrounds and traditions?

93. Which style of leadership focuses on inspiring and motivating people while creating a compelling vision to achieve organizational goals?

94. In the context of management, what does the function of organizing primarily involve?

95. Which type of leader gathers information, listens to subordinates, conducts analysis, and makes well-informed decisions for the organization?

96. Which school of management emphasizes addressing contemporary global and modern organizational challenges?

97. Which type of competency refers to the technical and specialized skills required to perform a specific job effectively?

98. What is the process of identifying and developing employees with the potential to take up higher responsibilities and future organizational roles?

99. What is the likely outcome of enhanced training and skill development of employees that contributes directly to organizational performance?

100. In project or task management, what term is used to define the planned start and end points of work activities?

101. Which of the following is considered a limitation of a Fund Flow Statement?

102. Under the Cash Flow Statement, which of the following is classified as an investing activity?

103. A company has Current Assets of ₹8,00,000, Current Liabilities of ₹4,80,000, and Inventory worth ₹2,00,000. What is its Quick Ratio?

104. Which accounting system is most widely used to ensure the accuracy and completeness of financial records?

105. Preparation of consolidated financial statements is mandatory for which of the following?

106. According to Ind AS 36, what is meant by impairment of an asset?

107. For what duration should a Rights Issue remain open for subscription by investors?

108. Which of the following is a systematic approach aimed at improving equipment maintenance and enhancing productivity?

109. The primary objective of which of the following approaches is waste elimination?

110. Which of the following is a group technology approach that forms an important part of Lean Manufacturing and Just-in-Time (JIT) systems?

111. In Standard Costing, the costs determined before the commencement of production are known as:

112. If the P/V Ratio is 30% of sales, the remaining 70% of sales represents:

113. In Activity-Based Costing (ABC), costs are assigned primarily on the basis of:

114. Royalty paid to the State Government based on the quantity of production is classified as:

115. Under the Companies Act, within how many days after the expiry of the initial 30-day dividend payment period must the unpaid dividend be transferred to the Unpaid Dividend Account?

116. Within what period can an appeal against an order of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) be filed before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?

117. Under Section 54 of the Companies Act, what is the lock-in period applicable to Sweat Equity Shares?

118. Which of the following is NOT covered under Section 186(4) of the Companies Act?

119. An auditor appointed in a company (government or non-government) may be removed before the expiry of the term only after obtaining prior approval from the:

120. As per the Companies Act, a Board Meeting must be convened by giving directors at least how many days' notice at their registered address?

121. What is the maximum permissible age for the Chairperson of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?

122. A listed company may appoint one director as a ________ shareholder director.

123. A company is generally prohibited from issuing shares at a discount. Which of the following is a recognized exception?

124. Which of the following correctly represents the formula for Per Capita Income?

125. Which concept measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price?

126. Which measure represents the total value of goods and services produced within the domestic territory during a given period?

127. Stagflation is characterized by which of the following combinations?

128. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of perfect competition?

129. The IS-LM model represents equilibrium in the:

130. Structural unemployment primarily arises due to: