Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 Quiz, FREE PDF

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The Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 compilation highlights the most important developments that took place across the banking, finance, insurance, and economic sectors during the month. It covers major policy announcements, regulatory changes, financial initiatives, and industry updates that are crucial for candidates preparing for competitive examinations. This compilation is especially useful for aspirants of SBI, IBPS, RBI, NABARD, SSC, and other government exams where banking and financial awareness plays a key role.

Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 PDF

The May 2026 PDF provides a well-organized and exam-focused summary of all major banking and financial current affairs from the month. It includes important updates related to RBI guidelines, SEBI regulations, digital banking initiatives, government schemes, economic indicators, and developments in the financial sector. Designed for quick revision, the PDF helps candidates efficiently revise important facts, reports, committees, and financial terminology before the examination.

Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 Quiz

The May 2026 quiz section contains 150 carefully curated questions based on the latest banking and financial awareness topics. The questions are prepared to strengthen conceptual clarity as well as factual knowledge, helping aspirants practice important exam-oriented current affairs from banking, economy, finance, and related sectors.

PART 1

Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 Quiz Part 1 Score: 0.00

Q1. Which company partnered with Axis Bank and PayU to introduce biometric authentication for card payments, enabling fingerprint or Face ID approvals instead of OTPs in April 2026?

Q2. Which authentication method is being phased out for card payments by Flipkart in collaboration with Axis Bank and PayU to enhance transaction security?

Q3. What asset threshold has the RBI set to exempt smaller NBFCs from registration if they have no customer interface and do not avail of public funds?

Q4. Smaller NBFCs that do not access public funds, have no customer interface, and possess assets below Rs. 1,000 crore are classified as what under the new framework?

Q5. What is the deadline provided by the RBI for existing eligible NBFCs to apply for deregistration through the PRAVAAH portal?

Q6. What does the RBI’s acronym ‘PRAVAAH’ stand for in the context of the regulatory application portal?

Q7. Under the revised framework, group NBFC entities must aggregate their assets. If their combined assets exceed __________, they must register with the RBI.

Q8. If a Type I unregistered NBFC breaches the public funds or customer interface conditions, who is mandated to file an exception report directly with the RBI?

Q9. What restriction has been placed on Unregistered Type I NBFCs regarding financial services investments abroad?

Q10. What percentage of Rs. 2,000 banknotes in circulation had been returned to the RBI as of April 30, 2026?

Q11. What was the total value of Rs. 2,000 notes in circulation when their withdrawal was announced on May 19, 2023?

Q12. As of April 30, 2026, what was the remaining value of Rs. 2,000 banknotes in circulation?

Q13. Through how many RBI issue offices has the facility to exchange Rs. 2,000 banknotes been made available?

Q14. What is the name of the mission-mode capacity-building initiative launched by the RBI to train urban cooperative bank personnel across India?

Q15. Under the final lending guidelines for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), what is the aggregate cap on unsecured loans and advances as a percentage of total loans?

Q16. What is the maximum individual unsecured loan limit set by the RBI for Tier-I Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)?

Q17. What is the maximum individual unsecured loan limit set by the RBI for Tier-II Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)?

Q18. Under the final UCB norms, individual unsecured loan limits for Tier-III and Tier-IV UCBs have been restricted to which amount?

Q19. Unsecured advances up to _________ per borrower categorised as priority-sector loans are excluded from the 20 per cent unsecured lending limit for ECBA-compliant UCBs.

Q20. For Tier-I and Tier-II UCBs, the tenure of housing loans has been capped at how many years, including the moratorium period?

Q21. According to the revised UCB norms, moratoriums for housing loans are permitted only for under-construction properties and are limited to a maximum of how many months?

Q22. Housing loan moratorium benefits are completely disallowed for which category of purchases under the new UCB guidelines?

Q23. Under the updated regulations, UCBs are explicitly barred from extending loans against fixed deposits issued by which entities?

Q24. Which of the following categories will be treated as unsecured exposures under the new RBI guidelines for UCBs?

Q25. When will the revised guidelines on unsecured lending and housing loan norms for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) officially come into effect?

Q26. The RBI removed the requirement for prior approval for outward remittance tie-up arrangements between digital platforms and banks of which specific category?

Q27. Digital outward remittance partnerships facilitated by AD Category-I banks without prior RBI approval are restricted to which transactions?

Q28. To safeguard remitter funds, the RBI has strictly barred the routing of such funds through which accounts in India?

Q29. In May 2026, the RBI decided against activating which regulatory capital mechanism, citing that prevailing systemic conditions do not warrant it?

Q30. Under which specific directions framework is the activation of the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) governed?

Q31. The concept of countercyclical capital buffers originally emerged globally in the aftermath of which historic crisis?

Q32. Which oversight body of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision proposed the CCyB framework as part of post-crisis banking reforms?

Q33. The RBI completely removed the Investment Fluctuation Reserve (IFR) requirement for banks maintaining capital charge for market risk under which condition?

Q34. Outstanding IFR balances of commercial banks exempted from the requirement can be recognized as which type of capital after proper transfer?

Q35. Under the final norms, which entities must continue to follow the IFR framework but will have their minimum IFR requirement assessed only on balance sheet dates?

Q36. For commercial banks exempted from IFR requirements, outstanding balances can be transferred below the line to which of the following?

Q37. In cases where IFR balances exceed regulatory thresholds for UCBs, the excess balances can be drawn down below the line based on whose discretion?

Q38. Why did the RBI reject requests from Small Finance Banks (SFBs) seeking the removal of IFR requirements?

Q39. Transfers to the Investment Fluctuation Reserve (IFR) by SFBs and payments banks must be made from which financial source?

Q40. To align with global standardizations, the RBI released draft norms on commercial banks’ capital adequacy based on which pillar of the Basel Framework?

Q41. According to the draft norms, Basel Pillar 3 disclosures should primarily apply at which level of the banking organization?

Q42. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over Pillar 3 disclosures?

Q43. Who must provide a written attestation that Pillar 3 disclosures comply with board-agreed internal control processes?

Q44. What should a bank do if disclosing a specific item required under Pillar 3 would contravene legal obligations by revealing proprietary/confidential information?

Q45. When must banks publish their Pillar 3 disclosures to maintain market clarity and transparency?

Q46. What record surplus transfer/dividend did the RBI declare for the government for the financial year 2025-26 (FY26)?

Q47. What was the total value of the RBI’s expanded balance sheet at the end of March 31, 2026?

Q48. By what percentage did the balance sheet size of the Reserve Bank of India expand as of March 31, 2026, compared to the previous period?

Q49. What was the total dividend receipt estimated by the government in the Union Budget from state-owned enterprises and central bank transfers?

Q50. By what percentage did the RBI’s gross income rise during the fiscal year ending March 31, 2026?

Quiz Summary

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Final Score: 0.0

PART 2

Banking & Financial Awareness May 2026 Quiz Part 2 Score: 0.00

Q51. What was the percentage increase in the RBI’s expenditure before risk provisions for the year ending March 31, 2026?

Q52. What is the name of the expert committee formed by the RBI to study quantum technology risks and framework implementations in the financial sector?

Q53. How many members comprise the Expert Committee for a Quantum Secure and Adaptive Financial Ecosystem (Q-SAFE)?

Q54. Who has been appointed as the convenor of the RBI’s newly formed Q-SAFE committee?

Q55. Which department of the RBI is tasked with providing secretarial support to the Q-SAFE expert committee?

Q56. Within what timeframe must the Q-SAFE committee submit its report to the RBI from the date of its first meeting?

Q57. The RBI introduced a mandatory cooling-off period of how many years for directors of Urban Co-operative Banks after a continuous tenure of 10 years?

Q58. Which global central banking institution signed an updated Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the RBI in Basel to strengthen central banking cooperation in May 2026?

Q59. The May 2026 updated MoU on central banking cooperation signed between RBI and ECB replaces their previous agreement executed in which year?

Q60. On the sidelines of which international organization’s meetings in Basel did the signing of the updated RBI-ECB MoU take place?

Q61. Who signed the central banking cooperation MoU on behalf of the European Central Bank (ECB) in Basel?

Q62. Which payments bank partnered with the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) to launch co-branded RuPay cards enabled with National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) features?

Q63. Which private sector lender received RBI approval to increase its aggregate stake up to 9.99% in both AU Small Finance Bank and Federal Bank in May 2026?

Q64. Under the filings communicated in May 2026, Kotak Mahindra Bank’s permitted 9.99% aggregate investment limit includes holdings managed by which entities?

Q65. Who approved the reappointment of Sandeep Bakhshi as the Chief Executive Officer of ICICI Bank for an additional period of two years?

Q66. Sandeep Bakhshi has been successfully leading ICICI Bank as its chief executive since which year?

Q67. For the three months ending March 31, 2026, what standalone net profit was posted by ICICI Bank?

Q68. ICICI Bank currently holds which position among India’s private sector lenders ranked by total market capitalization?

Q69. Kevin Warsh was sworn in as the new chair of the Board of Governors of which prominent international institution, succeeding Jerome Powell?

Q70. Who was the immediate predecessor of Kevin Warsh as the Chair of the United States Federal Reserve?

Q71. Unregistered Type I NBFC regulations mandated by the RBI officially came into enforcement on which date?

Q72. Under the revised guidelines for UCBs, loans backed solely by personal guarantees are classified under which exposure category?

Q73. What action can an unregistered Type I NBFC take if the RBI refuses its application for deregistration?

Q74. If an AD Category-I bank ties up with a digital platform for cross-border outward remittances, who remains fully responsible for FEMA, KYC, and anti-money laundering compliance?

Q75. What fundamental objective is served by activating the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) during standard banking cycles?

Part 2: Economy

Q76. According to S&P Global’s ‘India Forward’ report released in May 2026, what is India’s revised GDP growth projection for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?

Q77. S&P Global’s report cited which major factors for down-revising India’s growth projection for FY27?

Q78. Which of the following macroeconomic indicators was NOT explicitly named by S&P Global as facing pressure due to spillovers from the West Asia conflict?

Q79. What uniform base year was adopted by the National Statistics Office (NSO) for compiling Gross State Value Added (GSVA) estimates?

Q80. Prior to the NSO’s uniform notification, how many states and UTs were compiling GSDP estimates using 2011-12 as the base year?

Q81. Which territories were explicitly highlighted as exceptions that did not compile GSDP estimates using the old 2011-12 base series?

Q82. To improve constant-price economic estimation accuracy, the NSO’s new 2022-23 base framework explicitly moves away from which methods in several areas?

Q83. Under the updated NSO instructions, what will replace static input structures for tracking plantation activities classified as kutcha construction?

Q84. Which portal/platform is named as a major administrative data source for economic computations under the NSO’s revised GSVA guidelines?

Q85. According to official data for April 2026, which core infrastructure industry holds the highest weight of 28.04 per cent?

Q86. By what percentage did Crude Oil production (weight: 8.98%) decline in April 2026 compared to April 2025?

Q87. Natural Gas production, holding a weight of 6.88 per cent in the core index, registered what percentage decline in April 2026?

Q88. Production of Petroleum Refinery Products declined by what percentage in April 2026 over April 2025?

Q89. Which core sector registered the steepest decline of 8.6 per cent in production during April 2026 over the corresponding month of the previous year?

Q90. Steel production, which accounts for a 17.92 per cent weight in the index of eight core industries, increased by what percentage in April 2026?

Q91. Cement production (weight: 5.37%) expanded by what percentage in April 2026 over April 2025?

Q92. Electricity generation, holding a weight of 19.85 per cent, witnessed what percentage expansion in April 2026 over April 2025?

Q93. What is the cumulative weight of Petroleum Refinery Products, Steel, and Electricity combined in the Index of Eight Core Industries?

Q94. What amount was officially released by the Union Government as the first wage instalment under MGNREGA for the financial year 2026-27?

Q95. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) approved a shareholding acquisition in the Indian data centre sector by which foreign entity?

Q96. The development of a state-of-the-art Ship Repair Facility at Vadinar, Gujarat, was approved by which apex committee chaired by the Prime Minister?

Q97. The approved Vadinar Ship Repair Facility in Gujarat will be capable of handling vessels up to what maximum length?

Q98. Following the financial shocks and benchmark shifts noted in May 2026, the domestic 10-year government bond yield climbed by 50 basis points to reach what level?

Q99. Amid global pressures and West Asian conflicts, the Indian Rupee registered what percentage weakening as reported alongside the fiscal balance revisions?

Q100. For how many Fab/Packaging projects has approval been granted under the Semicon India Programme to strengthen domestic manufacturing capacity as of May 2026?

Quiz Summary

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PART 3

Banking & Financial Awareness Quiz May 2026 Part 3 Score: 0.00

Q101. Which ministry launched the new investor-facing interface portal named “Semicon Investor Connect” under the India Semiconductor Mission?

Q102. Which of the following is NOT explicitly listed among the entities supporting grievance resolutions on the India Semiconductor Mission’s official portal?

Q103. Under the updated NSO guidelines, how often are dynamic, state-specific cost structures for primary activities expected to be integrated for accurate GSVA estimates?

Q104. S&P Global’s report analyzing geopolitical spillovers is titled which of the following?

Q105. By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries cumulative index for natural gas drop during the full fiscal year 2025-26 over the previous year?

Part 3: Advanced/Applied Current Financial & Economic Frameworks

Q106. In the final guidelines on NBFCs, what happens if an unregistered Type I NBFC expands its operations and cross-connects assets to touch a valuation of Rs. 1,200 crore?

Q107. Which portal is used for submitting deregistration applications under the newly introduced structured exit framework for eligible NBFCs?

Q108. To apply for deregistration, an NBFC must submit audited financial statements covering at least how many preceding years?

Q109. If an NBFC uses indirect public funding via its group corporate entities, how does the RBI treat this under the tightened regulatory arbitrage definitions?

Q110. Under the revised guidelines, who holds the ultimate right to refuse an NBFC’s application for regulatory deregistration if the business model lacks durableness?

Q111. What action will be taken if an unregistered Type I NBFC attempts to invest in financial services abroad without obtaining prior registration and RBI clearance?

Q112. The withdrawal of Rs. 2,000 denomination banknotes was originally initiated by the RBI as part of which statutory management exercise?

Q113. Under the final lending guidelines for UCBs, what amount of unsecured priority sector loan per borrower is completely exempted from calculation under the 20% aggregate cap?

Q114. For a UCB to exclude unsecured priority-sector advances up to Rs. 50,000 from its 20% unsecured lending cap, it must be compliant with which criteria?

Q115. Larger Urban Cooperative Banks categorised under Tier-III and Tier-IV have been given what regulatory relaxation regarding housing loan tenures?

Q116. Which of the following is considered a ‘secured exposure’ for UCBs under the new rules, provided it is backed by enforceable employer arrangements?

Q117. Under the revised outward remittance framework, what major operational relaxation was given to AD Category-I banks?

Q118. What core transparency requirement does the RBI’s outward digital remittance framework mandate for partner non-bank platforms?

Q119. Under the RBI Commercial Banks Capital Adequacy Directions 2025, when is the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) intended to be activated?

Q120. If a commercial bank is exempted from maintaining an Investment Fluctuation Reserve (IFR), what accounting action must it take to treat outstanding balances as Tier 1 capital?

Q121. Under Paragraph 154(3) of the investment portfolio directions, what treatment is mandated for UCBs when handling IFR balances?

Q122. Why did the RBI reject requests from Tier 1 and Tier 2 Urban Cooperative Banks for exemption from the IFR framework?

Q123. Which guiding principle under the draft Pillar 3 disclosure norms requires that data describe a bank’s main activities and all significant risks with underlying details?

Q124. How must unlisted banking entities approach the newly proposed Basel Pillar 3 disclosure norms?

Q125. S&P Global’s report ‘India Forward’ notes that economic pressure on domestic markets caused the benchmark 10-year bond yield to climb by how many basis points?

Q126. Under the uniform guidelines issued by the National Statistics Office (NSO) for Gross State Value Added (GSVA), what is the targeted objective of shifting the base year?

Q127. Under the Index of Eight Core Industries data for April 2026, which industry recorded an expansion of 6.2 per cent in production?

Q128. What is the assigned weight of the Fertilizer production sector in the Index of Eight Core Industries?

Q129. By what percentage did the cumulative index of Petroleum Refinery Products decline during the April-March 2025-26 period?

Q130. Which industry in the core sector index holds an exact weight of 19.85 per cent?

Q131. Who heads the High-Level Committee on Demographic Change constituted by the Government of India, whose budget alignments touch financial outlays?

Q132. What specific role is played by the Census Commissioner in the newly constituted High-Level Committee on Demographic Change?

Q133. West Bengal’s Cabinet cleared the formation of which state pay commission to revise employee salaries, pensions, and allowances?

Q134. Which state government announced a major financial policy move implementing cash transfers and free bus rides for women alongside its pay panel updates?

Q135. In which year did West Bengal previously implement its 6th Pay Commission with retrospective arrears dating to 2016?

Q136. Ahead of its planned IPO, which tech-telecom infrastructure giant appointed Pankaj Pawar as Managing Director for a five-year term?

Q137. Pankaj Pawar, newly appointed as MD of Jio Platforms, previously took over as Chairman of Reliance Jio Infocomm Limited (RJIL) in which year?

Q138. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched which digital portal to track socio-economic development and monitor fund flows in 47,000 SC-majority villages?

Q139. Under the Adarsh Gram component of the PM-AJAY scheme, the new portal replaces paper-based planning with digital mapping across how many developmental domains?

Q140. How many socio-economic indicators are monitored via national, state, and district dashboards under the PM-AJAY Adarsh Gram digital planning component?

Q141. The Grants-in-Aid (GIA) component of the PM-AJAY portal functions as which type of automated system to monitor projects?

Q142. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched which virtual network mobile application specifically engineered for the welfare and safety of senior citizens?

Q143. What is the full expansion of the ‘JEEVAN’ mobile application launched for elderly care ecosystem management?

Q144. Which companion dashboard platform was launched to help senior citizens check the district-wise availability of certified Geriatric Caregivers?

Q145. What does the acronym ‘SHATAYU’ expand to in the context of the senior holistic care economy dashboard?

Q146. During which national workshop event were the tech platforms JEEVAN and SHATAYU officially unveiled?

Q147. Which mobile application was explicitly launched by the Haryana Building and Other Construction Workers Welfare Board to support laborers at traditional labour chowks?

Q148. The rollout of Haryana’s ShramMitra app is designed to digitally transform and gradually replace which traditional local system used by daily wage earners?

Q149. Under the Semicon India Programme updates, what entity facilitates official business matchmaking and investor engagement at India’s largest global textile events?

Q150. S&P Global’s ‘India Forward’ economic report warns that the ongoing West Asia conflict poses immediate fiscal containment risk for which macroeconomic indicator in India?

Quiz Summary

Attempted
0
Correct
0
Wrong
0
Unattempted
0
Final Score: 0.0