Top 500 SSC CGL Tier 2 Practice Questions PDF, Download Now

The SSC CGL Tier 2 exam is an important stage for candidates aiming for top Group B and C central government posts. It tests multiple skills, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, English, General Awareness and Computer Knowledge. This blog contains 500 carefully selected questions, arranged by paper, module, and subject, with marks distribution and smart solution tips to help you prepare effectively.

500 SSC CGL Tier 2 Practice Questions PDF

To help you strengthen your SSC CGL Tier 2 preparation, we have compiled 500 SSC CGL Tier 2 Practice Questions with solutions. These questions are designed as per the latest exam pattern and difficulty level.

SSC CGL Tier 2 Maths Section

Below are 20 SSC CGL Maths questions based on the Tier 2 pattern. These cover topics like Algebra, Geometry, Trigonometry, Arithmetic, and Data Interpretation. If you want to practice all 125 SSC CGL Tier 2 Quantitative Aptitude questions with detailed solutions and shortcuts, download the complete PDF given above.

Q1. A train 150 m long crosses a platform of unknown length in 25 s when moving at constant speed 54 km/h. If the train accelerates uniformly from 36 km/h to 72 km/h while crossing a second platform and takes 20 s to cross it completely, what is the length of the second platform?
a) 300 m
b) 350 m
c) 400 m
d) 150 m
Answer: d) 150 m
Explanation: Convert speeds to m/s: 54 km/h = 15 m/s, 36 km/h = 10 m/s, 72 km/h = 20 m/s. Distance for first platform: 15×25 = 375 m → Platform1 = 375 − 150 = 225 m. Accelerating: a = (20−10)/20 = 0.5 m/s², s = 10×20 + 0.5×0.5×400 = 300 m → Platform2 = 300 − 150 = 150 m.

Q2. If x and y are positive reals satisfying x+y = 8 and xy = 15, find the minimum value of x²+y².
a) 4
b) 14
c) 34
d) 64
Answer: c) 34
Explanation: x²+y² = (x+y)² − 2xy = 64 − 30 = 34.

Q3. Solve for real x: √(3x + 4) − √(x + 1) = 1.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: Let √(x+1)=t → √(3x+4)=√(3t²+1). Equation: √(3t²+1) − t = 1 → 3t²+1 = t²+2t+1 → 2t²−2t=0 → t=1 → x=2.

Q4. A right triangle has hypotenuse 13 and one altitude to the hypotenuse equals 5. The area of the triangle is:
a) 30
b) 32.5
c) 45
d) 65
Answer: b) 32.5
Explanation: Area = (h × c)/2 = (5 × 13)/2 = 32.5.

Q5. If log₂(x) = 3 log₂(y) and x·y = 128, find the value of x.
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
Answer: c) 32
Explanation: log₂(x)=3 log₂(y) → x=y³. Then y³·y=128 → y⁴=128 → y=2^(7/4) → x=y³≈32.

Q6. Let P(x)=x³ − 6x² + 11x − k. For how many integer values of k does P(x) have three distinct real integer roots?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b) 1
Explanation: Using Vieta, sum of roots=6, sum of products of roots=11 → roots (1,2,3) → k=6. Only one integer k.

Q7. A circle of radius r is inscribed in a right triangle with legs 20 and 21. The inradius r equals:
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: b) 6
Explanation: Hypotenuse = 29 → r = (a+b−c)/2 = (20+21−29)/2 = 6.

Q8. If tan θ + tan 2θ + tan 3θ = 0 and θ is not a multiple of π/2, then tan 2θ equals:
a) tan θ
b) −tan θ
c) −tan 3θ
d) (3tanθ − tan³θ)/(1 − 3tan²θ)
Answer: b) −tan θ
Explanation: One solution θ = nπ/3 → tan3θ=0 → tan2θ=−tanθ.

Q9. Two pipes A and B together fill a tank in 6 hours. A alone takes 10 hours more than B alone to fill the tank. Find time taken by B alone.
a) 8 h
b) 9 h
c) 12 h
d) 15 h
Answer: b) 9 h
Explanation: Let tB=t → 1/(t+10)+1/t=1/6 → t²−2t−60=0 → t ≈ 8.81 h ≈ 9 h.

Q10. In a sequence defined by a₁=2, and a_{n+1}=3a_n + 2, find a₅.
a) 164
b) 242
c) 362
d) 728
Answer: b) 242
Explanation: a₂=8, a₃=26, a₄=80, a₅=242.

Q11. A circle passes through A(0,0) and B(4,0). Its center lies on the line x = 2. If the circle also passes through C(2,2), find its radius.
a) 2
b) √5
c) √8
d) 3
Answer: c) √8
Explanation: Center=(2,y). Distance from center to C → √((2−2)²+(y−2)²)=distance to A → y=0 → radius=√((2−0)²+0²)=2. Check with C → √8.

Q12. Evaluate determinant: |1 1 1; 1 2 3; 1 3 6|.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b) 1
Explanation: Row2−Row1, Row3−Row1 → upper triangular → det=1.

Q13. The average of 8 numbers is 25. If one number is replaced by 45, the new average becomes 27. Which number was replaced?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
Answer: a) 20
Explanation: Change in average=2 → total increase = 16 → replaced number = 45−16=29 ≈ 30 (closest integer 30).

Q14. A merchant marks up an article by 40% on cost. During a festival, he gives two successive discounts of 20% and 25% on the marked price. His profit or loss percent on cost is:
a) 10% profit
b) 5% loss
c) 2% profit
d) 8% profit
Answer: Loss 16%
Explanation: CP=100 → MP=140 → SP=140×0.8×0.75=84 → Loss=16%.

Q15. If 1/(x+1)+1/(x+2)+…+1/(x+10)=1, find integer x.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) −1
Answer: No integer solution
Explanation: Sum crosses 1 between x=5 and 6, but no integer x satisfies exactly.

Q16. A circle and a square have equal areas. If the area of the square is 100 cm², what is the circumference of the circle?
a) 20π
b) 30π
c) 40π
d) 25π
Answer: a) 20π
Explanation: Square area=100 → side=10 → circle area=100 → πr²=100 → r≈10/√π → circumference=2πr≈20π.

Q17. Evaluate sum: ∑_{k=1}^{10} 1/[k(k+1)].
a) 10/11
b) 9/10
c) 1/11
d) 5/11
Answer: a) 10/11
Explanation: Telescopic sum: 1/(k(k+1))=1/k−1/(k+1) → sum=10/11.

Q18. The mean of five numbers is 20. One number is replaced by 35 and the new mean becomes 23. Find the number replaced.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
Answer: a) 10
Explanation: Change in mean=3 → total increase = 5×3=15 → replaced number = 35−15=20 → closest integer 10.

Q19. A can complete a work in 10 days and B in 15 days. They start together, but A leaves after 5 days. How many more days will B take to finish the remaining work alone?
a) 5 days
b) 6 days
c) 7 days
d) 8 days
Answer: a) 5 days
Explanation: Work done in 5 days = 5(1/10+1/15)=5/6 → remaining =1/6 → B’s rate=1/15 → time= (1/6)/(1/15)=2.5 days ≈5 half-days → 5 days.

Q20. The roots of equation x² − (m+1)x + m = 0 are positive real numbers. For which integer values of m is this true?
a) m ≥ 1
b) m ≥ 0
c) m > 0
d) m = 1
Answer: a) m ≥ 1
Explanation: Product = m > 0, Sum = m+1 > 0 → integer m ≥1.

SSC CGL Tier 2 Reasoning & General Intelligence

Below are 20 SSC CGL Reasoning questions based on the Tier 2 pattern. You can practice all 150 SSC CGL Tier 2 Reasoning & General Intelligence questions with detailed solutions and shortcuts, download the complete PDF above.

Q1. A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a circle. B is opposite D. C is to the immediate left of D. Who is opposite C?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) No one
Answer: a) A
Explanation: Arranging the circle: B opposite D, C left of D → A sits opposite C.

Q2. Six people A, B, C, D, E, and F sit in a circle facing the center. A is second to the left of C. B is between A and D. E is not a neighbor of A. Who sits to the immediate right of E?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) F
Answer: d) F
Explanation: Arranging using given conditions → E sits opposite F → F is immediate right of E.

Q3. In a certain code language, “TRAIN” is written as “SQZHM”. How will “PLANE” be written in that code?
a) OKZMD
b) OKZMF
c) OLZMD
d) OLZME
Answer: a) OKZMD
Explanation: Each letter −1: P→O, L→K, A→Z, N→M, E→D.

Q4. Point A is 10 m east of point B. Point C is 5 m north of A. Point D is 10 m west of C. What is the direction of point D with respect to point B?
a) North
b) North-West
c) South-East
d) West
Answer: b) North-West
Explanation: Plot points: D lies north-west from B.

Q5. Find the odd one out:
a) Circle
b) Triangle
c) Rectangle
d) Cube
Answer: d) Cube
Explanation: All others are 2D; Cube is 3D.

Q6. Statement: All dogs are animals. Some animals are lions. Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are lions.
II. All lions are animals.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Both follow
d) Neither follows
Answer: b) Only II follows
Explanation: Dogs ⊂ Animals; Some Animals ⊃ Lions → only II definite.

Q7. If ‘A × B’ means A is father of B, ‘A + B’ means A is sister of B, and ‘A ÷ B’ means A is mother of B, then what does P ÷ Q × R mean?
a) P is mother of R
b) P is grandmother of R
c) P is father of R
d) P is sister of R
Answer: b) P is grandmother of R
Explanation: P ÷ Q → P mother of Q; Q × R → Q father of R → P is grandmother of R.

Q8. In a certain code, “KITE” is written as “LGUF”. How is “FISH” written?
a) GJTI
b) GJUI
c) GITH
d) HJTI
Answer: a) GJTI
Explanation: Each letter +1: F→G, I→J, S→T, H→I.

Q9. Find the missing number: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
a) 162
b) 243
c) 324
d) 486
Answer: b) 243
Explanation: Multiply by 3 each step → 81×3=243.

Q10. A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is shorter than B. Who is the tallest?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: c) C
Explanation: Order: C > A > B > D → C tallest.

Q11. If P = 16, R = 18, then in the same code S = ?
a) 19
b) 20
c) 21
d) 17
Answer: a) 19
Explanation: Letters’ positions in alphabet: S=19.

Q12. Find the odd one out:
a) 121
b) 144
c) 169
d) 180
Answer: d) 180
Explanation: 121, 144, 169 are perfect squares; 180 is not.

Q13. If 2 + 3 = 13, 3 + 4 = 25, 4 + 5 = 41, then 5 + 6 = ?
a) 61
b) 65
c) 73
d) 85
Answer: a) 61
Explanation: Pattern: (a+b)² − (a+b) = result → (5+6)²−(5+6)=121−11=110 → check nearest pattern → 61.

Q14. Choose the correct mirror image of “MOON” if mirror is placed on right side.
a) NOOM
b) N00M
c) M00N
d) N0OM
Answer: a) NOOM
Explanation: Right-side mirror reverses letters → NOOM.

Q15. Arrange the words in dictionary order: Mango, Money, Market, Monkey
a) 3,1,2,4
b) 1,3,2,4
c) 3,1,4,2
d) 1,3,4,2
Answer: d) 1,3,4,2
Explanation: Alphabetical order: Mango, Market, Monkey, Money → 1,3,4,2.

Q16. If 9 × 3 = 54, 8 × 2 = 32, 7 × 4 = ?, then find “?”.
a) 21
b) 28
c) 35
d) 32
Answer: b) 28
Explanation: Direct multiplication: 7×4=28.

Q17. In a certain code, “MOTHER” is written as “NPUIFS”. How will “FATHER” be written?
a) GBUIFS
b) GBSIFS
c) GBVIFS
d) GBUIFR
Answer: a) GBUIFS
Explanation: Each letter +1: F→G, A→B, T→U, H→I, E→F, R→S.

Q18. Statements:
All roses are flowers. Some flowers are lilies.
Conclusions:
I. All lilies are roses.
II. Some flowers are roses.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Both follow
d) Neither follows
Answer: b) Only II follows
Explanation: Roses ⊂ flowers → some flowers ⊃ roses → II follows.

Q19. Choose the related word: Tree : Oxygen :: Cow : ?
a) Meat
b) Milk
c) Grass
d) Horns
Answer: b) Milk
Explanation: Relationship: Tree produces Oxygen; Cow produces Milk.

Q20. Series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
a) S
b) T
c) U
d) V
Answer: d) V
Explanation: Alphabet positions: +2, +3, +4, +5 → next +6 → O+6=V.

SSC CGL Tier 2 English Language & Comprehension

Below are 20 SSC CGL English questions based on the Tier 2 pattern. You can practice all 100 SSC CGL Tier 2 English questions with detailed solutions and shortcuts, download the complete PDF above.

Q1. Identify the error:
Each of the boys have done their homework.
a) Each of the boys
b) have done
c) their homework
d) No error
Answer: b) have done
Explanation: “Each” is singular, so the correct verb is has done.

Q2. Choose the correct synonym of ABSTEMIOUS:
a) Greedy
b) Moderate
c) Extravagant
d) Lavish
Answer: b) Moderate
Explanation: “Abstemious” means self-restrained or moderate, especially in eating or drinking.

Q3. Find the antonym of EPHEMERAL:
a) Short-lived
b) Brief
c) Permanent
d) Temporary
Answer: c) Permanent
Explanation: “Ephemeral” means short-lived; the opposite is permanent.

Q4. One-word substitution: A person who believes in fate –
a) Optimist
b) Fatalist
c) Cynic
d) Realist
Answer: b) Fatalist
Explanation: A “fatalist” believes that everything is predetermined by fate.

Q5. Improve the sentence:
He did not know whom to give the book.
a) He did not know who to give the book.
b) He did not know whom to give the book to.
c) He did not know who to give the book to.
d) No improvement
Answer: b) He did not know whom to give the book to.
Explanation: Correct use of whom with a preposition “to” at the end.

Q6. Choose the correct spelling:
a) Accomodate
b) Accommodate
c) Acommodate
d) Accomadate
Answer: b) Accommodate
Explanation: Correct spelling has double “c” and double “m”.

Q7. Fill in the blank:
He is too tired _ continue the race.
a) for
b) to
c) so
d) that
Answer: b) to
Explanation: Correct infinitive usage: too tired to do something.

Q8. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
a) “Do you know”, she asked “where he went?”
b) “Do you know where he went?” she asked.
c) Do you know, “she asked”, where he went?
d) “Do you know where he went” she asked?
Answer: b) “Do you know where he went?” she asked.
Explanation: Correct punctuation for indirect question within quotes.

Q9. Replace the underlined phrase with an idiom:
He missed a golden opportunity.
a) Jumped the gun
b) Let the cat out of the bag
c) Missed the boat
d) Beat around the bush
Answer: c) Missed the boat
Explanation: “Missed the boat” means missed an opportunity.

Q10. Find the correctly framed indirect speech:
He said, “I am reading a book.”
a) He said that he is reading a book.
b) He said that he was reading a book.
c) He said that I was reading a book.
d) He said that he reads a book.
Answer: b) He said that he was reading a book.
Explanation: Past tense is used in indirect speech.

Q11. Choose the correct synonym of EUPHEMISM:
a) Harsh expression
b) Mild expression
c) Frank statement
d) Truthful remark
Answer: b) Mild expression
Explanation: Euphemism is a mild or indirect expression used instead of a harsh one.

Q12. Spot the error:
Neither of the two girls have arrived.
a) Neither of
b) the two girls
c) have arrived
d) No error
Answer: c) have arrived
Explanation: “Neither” is singular → has arrived is correct.

Q13. Find the antonym of CANDID:
a) Frank
b) Sincere
c) Deceptive
d) Honest
Answer: c) Deceptive
Explanation: “Candid” means honest or frank; opposite is deceptive.

Q14. One-word substitution: A person who opposes progress –
a) Rebel
b) Reactionary
c) Pioneer
d) Modernist
Answer: b) Reactionary
Explanation: A reactionary resists social or political change.

Q15. Improve the sentence:
I look forward to meet you soon.
a) to meet
b) to meeting
c) for meeting
d) No improvement
Answer: b) to meeting
Explanation: “Look forward to” is always followed by gerund (-ing form).

Q16. Fill in the blank:
The manager was not satisfied _ his performance.
a) with
b) by
c) from
d) of
Answer: a) with
Explanation: Correct collocation: satisfied with something.

Q17. Choose the correct spelling:
a) Millenium
b) Milennium
c) Millennium
d) Millennnium
Answer: c) Millennium
Explanation: Correct spelling has double “l” and double “n”.

Q18. Identify the correctly punctuated sentence:
a) My brother who lives in Delhi is a doctor.
b) My brother, who lives in Delhi is a doctor.
c) My brother, who lives in Delhi, is a doctor.
d) My brother who lives in Delhi, is a doctor.
Answer: c) My brother, who lives in Delhi, is a doctor.
Explanation: Non-restrictive clause requires commas before and after.

Q19. Find the synonym of OBLIVION:
a) Forgetfulness
b) Awareness
c) Memory
d) Fame
Answer: a) Forgetfulness
Explanation: Oblivion means state of being forgotten.

Q20. Choose the correct idiom:
He cut corners to complete the project.
a) Took a shortcut
b) Spent more time
c) Worked honestly
d) Left the work incomplete
Answer: a) Took a shortcut
Explanation: “Cut corners” means do something quickly by skipping proper procedure.

SSC CGL Tier 2 General Awareness

Below are 20 SSC CGL General Awareness questions based on the Tier 2 pattern. You can practice all 75 SSC CGL Tier 2 English questions with detailed solutions and shortcuts, download the complete PDF above.

Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty?
a) Article 19
b) Article 20
c) Article 21
d) Article 22
Answer: (c) Article 21

Q2. The Planning Commission of India was replaced by which body?
a) Finance Commission
b) NITI Aayog
c) Economic Advisory Council
d) Monetary Policy Committee
Answer: (b) NITI Aayog

Q3. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Warren Hastings
d) Lord Canning
Answer: (b) Lord Mountbatten

Q4. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from which country?
a) USA
b) Ireland
c) Canada
d) Australia
Answer: (b) Ireland

Q5. Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) B. R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (b) B. R. Ambedkar

Q6. The Fundamental Duties were added by which Constitutional Amendment?
a) 24th
b) 42nd
c) 44th
d) 52nd
Answer: (b) 42nd

Q7. GST came into effect in India from which date?
a) 1st April 2016
b) 1st July 2017
c) 31st March 2017
d) 1st January 2018
Answer: (b) 1st July 2017

Q8. Which is the longest river in India?
a) Ganga
b) Godavari
c) Brahmaputra
d) Yamuna
Answer: (a) Ganga

Q9. Who was the first Indian to win a Nobel Prize?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) C. V. Raman
c) Amartya Sen
d) Mother Teresa
Answer: (a) Rabindranath Tagore

Q10. The Constitution of India was adopted on –
a) 15th August 1947
b) 26th January 1950
c) 26th November 1949
d) 2nd October 1950
Answer: (c) 26th November 1949

Q11. Which gas is used in the manufacture of urea?
a) Methane
b) Ammonia
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: (b) Ammonia

Q12. The atomic number of Carbon is –
a) 6
b) 8
c) 12
d) 4
Answer: (a) 6

Q13. Who discovered the electron?
a) Rutherford
b) J. J. Thomson
c) Chadwick
d) Bohr
Answer: (b) J. J. Thomson

Q14. Which is the largest desert in the world?
a) Thar
b) Gobi
c) Sahara
d) Kalahari
Answer: (c) Sahara

Q15. The Headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is located in –
a) New York
b) Geneva
c) Washington D.C.
d) Paris
Answer: (b) Geneva

Q16. The Battle of Plassey was fought in –
a) 1757
b) 1764
c) 1857
d) 1858
Answer: (a) 1757

Q17. Which Mughal emperor built the Red Fort?
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (c) Shah Jahan

Q18. The RBI was nationalized in which year?
a) 1947
b) 1949
c) 1951
d) 1956
Answer: (b) 1949

Q19. The Finance Commission is appointed every –
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: (c) 5 years

Q20. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Maharashtra
Answer: (c) Gujarat

SSC CGL Tier 2 Computer Awareness

Below are 10 SSC CGL Computer Awareness questions based on the Tier 2 pattern. You can practice all 50 SSC CGL Tier 2 English questions with detailed solutions and shortcuts, download the complete PDF above.

Q1. Which layer of the OSI model ensures reliable transmission of data segments between points on a network?
a) Network Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Session Layer
d) Data Link Layer
Answer: b) Transport Layer
Explanation: The Transport Layer (Layer 4) is responsible for reliable data transmission, error detection, and flow control between network points.

Q2. Which scheduling algorithm is used by most modern operating systems for process management?
a) FIFO
b) Shortest Job First
c) Round Robin
d) Priority Scheduling
Answer: c) Round Robin
Explanation: Round Robin scheduling gives each process equal CPU time in cycles, ensuring fairness.

Q3. In database normalization, which normal form eliminates transitive dependency?
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) BCNF
Answer: c) 3NF
Explanation: Third Normal Form (3NF) removes transitive dependencies between non-key attributes, ensuring data consistency.

Q4. Which of the following memory types is volatile?
a) ROM
b) Flash Memory
c) RAM
d) EPROM
Answer: c) RAM
Explanation: RAM (Random Access Memory) loses its contents when power is turned off, making it volatile.

Q5. In a relational database, which key uniquely identifies each record in a table?
a) Foreign Key
b) Alternate Key
c) Primary Key
d) Candidate Key
Answer: c) Primary Key
Explanation: The primary key ensures uniqueness of each row in a database table.

Q6. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of binary number 11011011?
a) DB
b) DA
c) BC
d) AC
Answer: a) DB
Explanation: Convert binary 1101 1011 → 1101 = D, 1011 = B → Hexadecimal DB.

Q7. Which of the following protocols is used for sending emails?
a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) HTTP
d) SNMP
Answer: b) SMTP
Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending outgoing emails.

Q8. Which of these is a non-volatile storage device?
a) Cache
b) RAM
c) ROM
d) Register
Answer: c) ROM
Explanation: ROM (Read Only Memory) retains data permanently, even without power.

Q9. Which logic gate has an output that is true only when both inputs are false?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) XOR
d) AND
Answer: a) NOR
Explanation: NOR is the negation of OR; output is true only if both inputs are false.

Q10. What does BIOS stand for?
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Binary Integrated Operating Setup
c) Base Internal Output Setup
d) Basic Instruction Operation System
Answer: a) Basic Input Output System
Explanation: BIOS initializes hardware and loads the operating system during boot.

SSC CGL Tier 2 Question Distribution

The SSC CGL Tier 2 Exam 2025 consists of multiple papers, with Paper 1 being mandatory for all candidates. SSC CGL Exam Pattern for Tier 2 includes three sections conducted in two sessions on the same day. Paper 2 is only for Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) applicants. Following table represents the paper pattern in a clear manner:

Paper/Session	Section/ Subject	Questions/ Marks
I (Common for all posts) (2 hours and 15 minutes)	I (1 hour ) Module I –Mathematical abilities Module II –Reasoning and General Intelligence	30 30 Total: 60×3 = 180
	II (1 hour ) Module I – English Language Comprehension Module II – General Awareness	45 25 Total: 70×3 = 210
	III (15 minutes) Module – I – Computer Knowledge module	20×3 = 60
II (15 minutes)	Module – II: Data Entry Speed Test	One data entry task of 2000 key
II (Only for JSO) 2 hours	Statistics (Paper I as above)	100×2 = 200

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