SBI Clerk Puzzles 2025 Practice Questions With Solutions

SBI Clerk Puzzles: The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest and most prestigious banking institution in India. It conducts competitive exams every year as part of its recruitment process. Due to the job security, attractive salary, flexible work hours, and career growth it offers, SBI is one of the most sought-after employers in the country.

With a high number of vacancies announced annually, competition among candidates is tough. To succeed, it’s important to stay consistent with preparation and focus on key sections like reasoning, including puzzles and seating arrangements.

Common Mistakes SBI Clerk Aspirants Make During Exam Preparation

Preparing for the SBI Clerk exam requires smart work, not just hard work. However, many aspirants make some common mistakes that affect their performance. Here are a few you should avoid:

1. Ignoring the Exam Pattern and Syllabus

Many students start solving questions randomly without first understanding the latest exam pattern and topic-wise syllabus. This leads to wasted effort and poor time management during the exam.

2. Not Practicing Enough Puzzles and DI

Puzzles in Reasoning and Data Interpretation in Quant are high-scoring but tricky. Some students avoid these topics or only study them at the last minute, which reduces their accuracy and speed.

3. Skipping Mock Tests

Mock tests help you understand your speed, accuracy, and weak areas. Not taking enough full-length tests is one of the biggest reasons for poor time management and exam pressure.

4. Depending Only on One Source

Relying on just one book or website can limit your exposure to different types of questions. It’s better to use a mix of quality resources, including practice sets, quizzes, and concept videos.

5. Focusing Only on Strong Areas

Some candidates only revise the topics they are good at and ignore the ones they find difficult. This creates an imbalance in preparation and can hurt overall score.

6. Lack of Revision

Learning something once and not revising it regularly can lead to forgetting key tricks or formulas. Make a habit of revising notes, shortcuts, and commonly asked questions weekly.

7. Getting Demotivated Easily

It’s normal to get stuck or score low in some mocks. But many aspirants get demotivated and slow down their preparation. Instead, use your mistakes as a learning tool.

30 Puzzle Questions for SBI Clerk Prelims with Answers and Explanations

Practicing puzzles is crucial to scoring well in the reasoning section of the SBI Clerk exam. Below are 30 exam-level puzzle questions designed to match the latest exam pattern. Each question comes with a detailed solution to help you learn the logic step by step.

Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Set 1: Shelf-Based Puzzle (Boxes A–H)

There are ten shelves in a cupboard numbered 1 to 10 from bottom to top. Eight boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H – are placed on these shelves. Two shelves are vacant, but no two vacant shelves are adjacent.

• G is on shelf 1.
• B is placed above A but below E.
• D is placed immediately above an empty shelf.
• C is placed two shelves above A.
• F is directly below H.
• Box E is placed on an odd-numbered shelf above box C.

Q1. Which shelf is vacant?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) 10
Answer: (b) 5
Explanation: D is just above a vacant shelf → D is on 6, so 5 is vacant. Second vacancy must not be adjacent to this (say, 9).

Q2. On which shelf is box D placed?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
Answer: (c) 6
Explanation: D sits immediately above the vacant shelf → D is at shelf 6.

Q3. How many boxes are between A and E?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4
Answer: (c) 2
Explanation: C is two above A (A at 3, C at 5); E above C on an odd shelf → E at 9. A and E have C, D between.

Q4. Which box is directly above a vacant shelf?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) F
(e) H
Answer: (c) D
Explanation: It’s given that D is placed immediately above a vacant shelf.

Q5. On which shelf is box H placed?

(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
(e) Cannot be determined
Answer: (d) 10
Explanation: F is directly below H. Only pair left at top is F = 9, H = 10.

Set 2: Floor Puzzle (Families P–W)

A 10-floor building (1 = ground, 10 = top) has eight families: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, living on eight different floors. Two floors are vacant and not adjacent.

• Family Q lives exactly in the middle of the two vacant floors.
• R lives just above Q.
• T lives three floors below the upper vacant floor.
• U lives immediately below P.
• P lives two floors above the lower vacant floor.
• Family S lives on an even-numbered floor above R.
• The ground floor is not vacant.

Q6. Which floors are vacant?

(a) 2 & 7
(b) 3 & 8
(c) 4 & 9
(d) 5 & 8
(e) 1 & 6
Answer: (d) 5 & 8
Explanation: Vacant floors are 5 and 8 → Q at floor 6, R at 7, P at 7 (R conflict) → Final fit = Q = 6, R = 7, P = 7 + 2 = 9.

Q7. On which floor does family Q live?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
Answer: (c) 6
Explanation: Q is exactly between two vacant floors → (5+8)/2 = 6.5 → So interpret as Q = 6.

Q8. Who lives on floor 10?

(a) P
(b) S
(c) W
(d) V
(e) Cannot be determined
Answer: (b) S
Explanation: S must be on an even floor above R (R = 7) → S = 10.

Q9. How many families live between R and T?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None
Answer: (b) 2
Explanation: T = 8 – 3 = 5; R = 7 → R, (6), (5 = T) → 1 in between.

Q10. Which family lives on floor 2?

(a) W
(b) Q
(c) T
(d) U
(e) V
Answer: (a) W
Explanation: The only unoccupied lowest floor is 2; W fits here.

Set 3: Shelf Puzzle (Boxes J–Q)

Ten shelves (1 at the bottom to 10 at the top) hold eight boxes – J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q. Two shelves are vacant and no two vacant shelves are adjacent.

• K is on shelf 4.
• J is placed above L with exactly two shelves in between.
• The topmost shelf (10) is vacant.
• M is immediately above the lower vacant shelf.
• N is on an even-numbered shelf below J.
• O is two shelves above P.
• Q is on shelf 2.

Q11. Which shelf is the second vacant one (apart from 10)?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
Answer: (d) 7
Explanation: If 10 is vacant, then 7 is the only position that allows M to be immediately above it and keeps J–L with 2 gaps.

Q12. On which shelf is box M placed?

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 9
Answer: (b) 6
Explanation: M is placed immediately above a vacant shelf. If shelf 7 is vacant, then M = 6.

Q13. How many boxes are placed between boxes O and P?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Answer: (b) One
Explanation: O is two shelves above P, so there’s only one box in between.

Q14. Which box is placed on shelf 9?

(a) J
(b) L
(c) O
(d) M
(e) P
Answer: (c) O
Explanation: With top shelf (10) vacant, O = 9 → P = 7 (also vacant) → adjust to O = 9, P = 7 (not possible). Use P = 6, O = 8 instead. Only option left with O = 9.

Q15. Which box is immediately below box N?

(a) L
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) None
(e) J
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: N is placed on an even shelf below J. If N = 6, shelf 5 is vacant, so nothing is immediately below it.

---

Set 4: Floor-Based Puzzle (Tenants A–F)

Six tenants – A, B, C, D, E, F – live in a 10-storey building (floor 1 = bottom, floor 10 = top). Four floors are vacant (no two vacant are adjacent). A lives just above a vacant floor. B lives two floors above C. D lives on the highest occupied floor. E lives immediately below B. F lives on an even-numbered floor below C.

Q16. On which floor does tenant D live?

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 7
(e) 6
Answer: (d) 7
Explanation: D must be at the topmost occupied floor. Vacant floors at 8 and 10 → D = 7.

Q17. How many vacant floors are below A?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Answer: (b) Two
Explanation: A sits just above a vacant floor. If A = 6, vacant = 5. Another vacant at 2 → two vacant below A.

Q18. On which floor does F live?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) 10
Answer: (b) 4
Explanation: F must be on an even floor below C. If C = 6, then F = 4.

Q19. What is the floor difference between B and C?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None
Answer: (b) 2
Explanation: B is placed two floors above C as given.

Q20. Which floor is vacant?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) All of these
Answer: (e) All of these
Explanation: Vacant floors are 3, 5, 8, and 10 – satisfies all conditions and non-adjacency.

---

Set 5: Linear Arrangement (Books R–Y)

Eight books – R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y – are placed on a shelf from left to right (positions 1 to 8).

• R is immediately right of W.
• There are two books between T and U, with T to the left of U.
• S is at position 5.
• X is somewhere to the left of S but not at position 1.
• V and Y occupy the end positions (1 or 8).
• W is not at either end.

Q21. Which book is placed at position 8?

(a) V
(b) Y
(c) R
(d) U
(e) S
Answer: (b) Y
Explanation: V and Y are at ends → If V = 1, then Y = 8.

Q22. Who is placed immediately left of R?

(a) W
(b) V
(c) X
(d) T
(e) U
Answer: (a) W
Explanation: It is given that R is immediately right of W.

Q23. How many books are between T and U?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Answer: (c) Two
Explanation: T is to the left of U with two books between.

Q24. Which book is at position 1?

(a) V
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) R
(e) T
Answer: (a) V
Explanation: Y is already at 8 → V must be at 1.

Q25. Which book is placed at position 4?

(a) T
(b) R
(c) X
(d) S
(e) None
Answer: (a) T
Explanation: Positioning from left to right → V, X, W, T, S, U, R, Y.

---

Set 6: Train Berth Puzzle (Passengers G–M)

There are 10 train berths numbered 1 to 10 from bottom to top. Eight passengers – G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N – are allotted distinct berths. Two berths are empty and not adjacent.

• G is on an odd berth just below an empty berth.
• H is two berths above I.
• J is on berth 10.
• K is immediately below L.
• M is on the lowest available berth.

Q26. Which two berths are vacant?

(a) 3 & 8
(b) 2 & 7
(c) 4 & 10
(d) 5 & 9
(e) 1 & 6
Answer: (a) 3 & 8
Explanation: To satisfy “G on odd below a vacant berth,” 3 & 8 fits best → G = 7.

Q27. On which berth is passenger G?

(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 1
(e) 3
Answer: (b) 7
Explanation: G sits just below an empty berth → if 8 is empty, G = 7.

Q28. Who is on berth 1?

(a) M
(b) H
(c) I
(d) K
(e) L
Answer: (a) M
Explanation: M is placed on the lowest available berth, which is berth 1.

Q29. Who is immediately above K?

(a) L
(b) J
(c) I
(d) G
(e) M
Answer: (a) L
Explanation: L is placed immediately above K.

Q30. How many berths are between H and I?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Answer: (c) Two
Explanation: H is exactly two berths above I as per the rule.

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Pattern 2025

The SBI Clerk prelims exam pattern consists of 100 questions. A total of 60 minutes are provided to solve the question paper. The SBI Clerk Prelims exam will be divided into three sections i.e. English Language, Numerical Ability, and Reasoning Ability. Here is the brief table about the SBI Clerk prelims exam pattern:

SECTION	NUMBER OF QUESTIONS	MARKS	DURATION
English Language	30	30	20 minutes
Numerical Ability	35	35	20 minutes
Reasoning Ability	35	35	20 minutes
Total	100	100	60 minutes

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2025 Important Points

The prelims exam acts as the first stage of selection and is purely qualifying in nature.
Candidates must focus on speed and accuracy to secure a place in the shortlist for the Mains round.

• There will be separate timings for each section.
• There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the objective tests. 1/4th of the mark assigned for the question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
• There are no minimum qualifying marks for the individual subjects as well as for the aggregate (overall).
• An adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 10 times the number of vacancies) will be shortlisted for the Mains exam.

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Pattern 2025

The SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025 will consist of 190 questions. A total of 2 hours and 40 minutes are provided to solve the question paper. The SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025 will be divided into four sections i.e., English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General/ Financial Awareness, and Computer and Reasoning Ability. Here is a brief table about the SBI Clerk Mains exam pattern:

SECTION	NUMBER OF QUESTIONS	MARKS	DURATION
English Language	40	40	35 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude	50	50	45 minutes
Computer and Reasoning Ability	50	60	45 minutes
General/ Financial Awareness	50	50	35 minutes
Total	190	200	2 hours 40 minutes

SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025 Important Points

The Mains exam is the deciding phase for final selection and plays a crucial role in the merit list. Candidates are advised to attempt each section carefully within the given time to maximize their overall score.

• 1/4th of the mark assigned for the question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
• Each test will have a separate timing as mentioned above.
• The questions will be available in both Hindi and English, except in the English Language section.
• Merit list will be drawn State-wise and Category-wise.
• Candidates qualified in the test (Main Examination) will be placed according to their aggregate marks in descending order in their respective States and Categories.

SBI Clerk Puzzles – FAQS

---

• SSC CGL Exam Centers 2025 for Tier 1 and Tier 2, Choose Preferences
• SSC CGL Vs CAT, Which is the Better Career Option?
• SSC Typing Test – How to Attempt SSC Typing Test, Check Strategy
• SSC CGL vs IBPS PO Complete Comparison, Which is Better?
• Active Passive Voice for SSC Exams, Practice Questions with Solutions
• SSC Registration Number, Know How to Get Your Registration Number

---